Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 5 / 138 of 400 #738 of 2000

Problem 738

AIME late
Combinatorics Difficulty 5.4 Prove it Harvard-MIT Mathematics Tournament · United States

Problem:

How many ways can one color the squares of a 6×66 \times 6 grid red and blue such that the number of red squares in each row and column is exactly 22?

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

Solution:

Answer: 6795067950

Assume the grid is n×nn \times n. Let f(n)f(n) denote the number of ways to color exactly two squares in each row and column red. So f(1)=0f(1)=0 and f(2)=1f(2)=1. We note that coloring two squares red in each row and column partitions the set 1,2,,n1,2, \ldots, n into cycles such that ii is in the same cycle as, and adjacent to, jj iff column ii and column jj have a red square in the same row. Each ii is adjacent to two others (or the same one twice in a 22-cycle).

Now consider the cycle containing 11, and let it have size kk. There are (n2)\binom{n}{2} ways to color two squares red in the first column. Now we let the column that is red in the same row as the top ball in the first column be the next number in the cycle. There are n1n-1 ways to pick this column, and n2n-2 ways to pick the second red square in this column (unless k=2k=2). Then there are (n2)(n3)(n-2)(n-3) ways to pick the red squares in the third column, and (nj)(nj+1)(n-j)(n-j+1) ways to pick the jjth ones for jk1j \leq k-1. Then when we pick the kkth column, the last one in the cycle, it has to be red in the same row as the second red square in column 11, so there are just nk+1n-k+1 choices. Therefore, if the cycle has length kk there are
n(n1)2×(n1)(n2)××(nk+1)(nk+2)×(nk+1) \frac{n(n-1)}{2} \times (n-1)(n-2) \times \ldots \times (n-k+1)(n-k+2) \times (n-k+1)
ways, which equals:
n!(n1)!2(nk)!(nk)!. \frac{n!(n-1)!}{2(n-k)!(n-k)!}.
Summing over the size of the cycle containing the first column, we get
f(n)=k=2n12f(nk)n!(n1)!(nk)!(nk)!2nf(n)n!n!=k=2nf(nk)(nk)!(nk)!2nf(n)n!n!2(n1)f(n1)(n1)!(n1)!=f(n2)(n2)!(n2)! \begin{gathered} f(n)=\sum_{k=2}^{n} \frac{1}{2} f(n-k) \frac{n!(n-1)!}{(n-k)!(n-k)!} \\ \frac{2 n f(n)}{n!n!}=\sum_{k=2}^{n} \frac{f(n-k)}{(n-k)!(n-k)!} \\ \frac{2 n f(n)}{n!n!}-\frac{2(n-1) f(n-1)}{(n-1)!(n-1)!}=\frac{f(n-2)}{(n-2)!(n-2)!} \end{gathered}
We thus obtain the recursion:
f(n)=n(n1)f(n1)+n(n1)22f(n2) f(n)=n(n-1) f(n-1)+\frac{n(n-1)^{2}}{2} f(n-2)
Then we get:
f(1)=0f(2)=1f(3)=6f(4)=12×6+18=90f(5)=20×90+40×6=2040f(6)=30×2040+75×90=67950 \begin{aligned} & f(1)=0 \\ & f(2)=1 \\ & f(3)=6 \\ & f(4)=12 \times 6+18=90 \\ & f(5)=20 \times 90+40 \times 6=2040 \\ & f(6)=30 \times 2040+75 \times 90=67950 \end{aligned}

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.