Olympiad Maths Prep

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Problem 1851

IMO Shortlist mid-range; USAMO P2/P5
Number theory Difficulty 8.7 Prove it 48th International Mathematical Olympiad Vietnam 2007 Shortlisted Problems with Solutions · IMO · 2007

For a prime pp and a positive integer nn, denote by νp(n)\nu_{p}(n) the exponent of pp in the prime factorization of n!n!. Given a positive integer dd and a finite set {p1,,pk}\{p_{1}, \ldots, p_{k}\} of primes. Show that there are infinitely many positive integers nn such that dνpi(n)d \mid \nu_{p_{i}}(n) for all 1ik1 \leq i \leq k.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solutions — 2

Solution 1

For arbitrary prime pp and positive integer nn, denote by ordp(n)\operatorname{ord}_{p}(n) the exponent of pp in nn. Thus,
νp(n)=ordp(n!)=i=1nordp(i) \nu_{p}(n)=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(n!)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)
Lemma. Let pp be a prime number, qq be a positive integer, kk and rr be positive integers such that pk>rp^{k}>r. Then νp(qpk+r)=νp(qpk)+νp(r)\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}+r\right)=\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}\right)+\nu_{p}(r).
Proof. We claim that ordp(qpk+i)=ordp(i)\operatorname{ord}_{p}\left(q p^{k}+i\right)=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(i) for all 0<i<pk0<i<p^{k}. Actually, if d=ordp(i)d=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(i) then d<kd<k, so qpk+iq p^{k}+i is divisible by pdp^{d}, but only the first term is divisible by pd+1p^{d+1}; hence the sum is not.
Using this claim, we obtain
νp(qpk+r)=i=1qpkordp(i)+i=qpk+1qpk+rordp(i)=i=1qpkordp(i)+i=1rordp(i)=νp(qpk)+νp(r) \nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}+r\right)=\sum_{i=1}^{q p^{k}} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)+\sum_{i=q p^{k}+1}^{q p^{k}+r} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)=\sum_{i=1}^{q p^{k}} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)+\sum_{i=1}^{r} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)=\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}\right)+\nu_{p}(r)
For any integer aa, denote by aˉ\bar{a} its residue modulo dd. The addition of residues will also be performed modulo dd, i.e. aˉ+bˉ=a+b\bar{a}+\bar{b}=\overline{a+b}. For any positive integer nn, let f(n)=(f1(n),,fk(n))f(n)=(f_{1}(n), \ldots, f_{k}(n)), where fi(n)=νpi(n)f_{i}(n)=\overline{\nu_{p_{i}}(n)}.
Define the sequence n1=1,n+1=(p1p2pk)nn_{1}=1, n_{\ell+1}=(p_{1} p_{2} \ldots p_{k})^{n_{\ell}}. We claim that
f(n1+n2++nm)=f(n1)+f(n2)++f(nm) f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m}}\right)
for any 1<2<<m\ell_{1}<\ell_{2}<\ldots<\ell_{m}. (The addition of kk-tuples is componentwise.) The base case m=1m=1 is trivial.
Suppose that m>1m>1. By the construction of the sequence, pin1p_{i}^{n_{\ell_{1}}} divides n2++nmn_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}; clearly, pin1>n1p_{i}^{n_{\ell_{1}}}>n_{\ell_{1}} for all 1ik1 \leq i \leq k. Therefore the Lemma can be applied for p=pi,k=r=n1p=p_{i}, k=r=n_{\ell_{1}} and qpk=n2++nmq p^{k}=n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}} to obtain
fi(n1+n2++nm)=fi(n1)+fi(n2++nm) for all 1ik f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right) \quad \text{ for all } 1 \leq i \leq k
and hence
f(n1+n2++nm)=f(n1)+f(n2++nm)=f(n1)+f(n2)++f(nm) f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m}}\right)
by the induction hypothesis.
Now consider the values f(n1),f(n2),f\left(n_{1}\right), f\left(n_{2}\right), \ldots There exist finitely many possible values of ff. Hence, there exists an infinite sequence of indices 1<2<\ell_{1}<\ell_{2}<\ldots such that f(n1)=f(n2)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)=\ldots. and thus
f(nm+1+nm+2++nm+d)=f(nm+1)++f(nm+d)=df(n1)=(0,,0) f\left(n_{\ell_{m+1}}+n_{\ell_{m+2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m+d}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{m+1}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m+d}}\right)=d \cdot f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)=(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0})
for all mm. We have found infinitely many suitable numbers.

Solution 2

We use the same Lemma and definition of the function ff.
Let S={f(n):nN}S=\{f(n): n \in \mathbb{N}\}. Obviously, set SS is finite. For every sSs \in S choose the minimal nsn_{s} such that f(ns)=sf\left(n_{s}\right)=s. Denote N=maxsSnsN=\max_{s \in S} n_{s}. Moreover, let gg be an integer such that pig>Np_{i}^{g}>N for each i=1,2,,ki=1,2, \ldots, k. Let P=(p1p2pk)gP=(p_{1} p_{2} \ldots p_{k})^{g}.
We claim that
{f(n)n[mP,mP+N]}=S(1) \{f(n) \mid n \in[m P, m P+N]\}=S \tag{1}
for every positive integer mm. In particular, since (0,,0)=f(1)S(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0})=f(1) \in S, it follows that for an arbitrary mm there exists n[mP,mP+N]n \in[m P, m P+N] such that f(n)=(0,,0)f(n)=(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0}). So there are infinitely many suitable numbers.
To prove (1), let ai=fi(mP)a_{i}=f_{i}(m P). Consider all numbers of the form nm,s=mP+nsn_{m, s}=m P+n_{s} with s=(s1,,sk)Ss=(s_{1}, \ldots, s_{k}) \in S (clearly, all nm,sn_{m, s} belong to [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N] ). Since nsN<pign_{s} \leq N<p_{i}^{g} and pigmPp_{i}^{g} \mid m P, we can apply the Lemma for the values p=pi,r=ns,k=g,qpk=mPp=p_{i}, r=n_{s}, k=g, q p^{k}=m P to obtain
fi(nm,s)=fi(mP)+fi(ns)=ai+si; f_{i}\left(n_{m, s}\right)=f_{i}(m P)+f_{i}\left(n_{s}\right)=a_{i}+s_{i} ;
hence for distinct s,tSs, t \in S we have f(nm,s)f(nm,t)f\left(n_{m, s}\right) \neq f\left(n_{m, t}\right).
Thus, the function ff attains at least S|S| distinct values in [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N]. Since all these values belong to S,fS, f should attain all possible values in [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N].

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