Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 259 of 400 #1259 of 2000

Problem 1259

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.4 Prove it Selection and Training Session · Belarus

Given natural number a>1a > 1 and different odd prime numbers p1,,pnp_1, \ldots, p_n, with
ap11(modp2), ap21(modp3), , apn1(modp1). a^{p_1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_2},\ a^{p_2} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_3},\ \ldots,\ a^{p_n} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_1}.
Prove that

a) (a1)(a-1) is divisible by pip_i for some i=1,,ni = 1, \ldots, n.

b) Can (a1)(a-1) be divisible by pip_i for exactly one ii of i=1,,ni = 1, \ldots, n?

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

a) (Solution of A.Ivanin, O.Volod'ko, A.Zhuk.) (Further we put pn+1=p1p_{n+1} = p_1.)
Let pkp_k be the greatest number among all pip_i (i=1,2,,ni = 1, 2, \ldots, n). The condition api1(modpi+1)a^{p_i} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{i+1}} implies that aa and pip_i are relatively prime for all ii. Then apk+111(modpk+1)a^{p_{k+1}-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}} by Little Fermat Theorem. Since, by the problem condition, apk1(modpk+1)a^{p_k} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}}, we also have ad1(modpk+1)a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}} where d=GCD(pk+11,pk)d = \text{GCD}(p_{k+1}-1, p_k).
But from dpkd \mid p_k it follows that d=pkd = p_k or d=1d = 1. If d=pkd = p_k then pk+11pkp_{k+1} - 1 \ge p_k, pk+1>pkp_{k+1} > p_k, a contradiction. Hence d=1d=1 and a1(modpk+1)a \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}}, q.e.d.

b) Take any prime p1p_1. By the Dirichlet theorem, we can choose a sequence of primes p1,,pnp_1, \ldots, p_n such that p21p1, p31p2, , pn1pn1p_2 - 1 \mid p_1,\ p_3 - 1 \mid p_2,\ \ldots,\ p_n - 1 \mid p_{n-1}.

Let pk+11=pkbk+1p_{k+1} - 1 = p_k b_{k+1}, k=1,,n1k = 1, \ldots, n - 1. Further, choose for any l=2,,nl = 2, \ldots, n a primitive root xl(modpl)x_l \pmod{p_l} and set ak=xkbka_k = x_k^{b_k}. In particular, ak+1≢1(modpk+1)a_{k+1} \not\equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}} and ak+1pk=xk+1pk+111(modpk+1)a_{k+1}^{p_k} = x_{k+1}^{p_{k+1}-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p_{k+1}}. Now by the Chinese Remainder Theorem, there exists an aa such that a1(modp1)a \equiv 1 \pmod{p_1} and aak+1(modpk)a \equiv a_{k+1} \pmod{p_k} for k=1,,n1k = 1, \ldots, n-1. This aa satisfies the condition.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.