Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 199 of 400 #1199 of 2000

Problem 1199

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.3 Prove it

Let the sequence (an)\left(a_{n}\right) be defined as follows:

a0=3,a1=0,a2=2,an+3=an+1+an(n=0,1,2,) a_{0}=3, \quad a_{1}=0, \quad a_{2}=2, \quad a_{n+3}=a_{n+1}+a_{n} \quad(n=0,1,2, \ldots)

Show that if pp is a prime, then papp \mid a_{p}.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

I. solution. The polynomial x3x1x^{3}-x-1 has three distinct complex roots, α,β\alpha, \beta, and γ\gamma (exactly one of which is real); this can be easily proven by the usual function analysis. It is known that in this case, with suitable A,B,CA, B, C (complex) constants, an=Aαn+Bβn+Cγn(n=0,1,2,)a_{n}=A \alpha^{n}+B \beta^{n}+C \gamma^{n}(n=0,1,2, \ldots). The values of A,B,CA, B, C are uniquely determined by the first three terms of the sequence. In our case, A=B=C=1A=B=C=1, since from the relationships between the roots and coefficients, α+β+γ=0=a1,α2+β2+γ2=(α+β+γ)22(αβ+βγ+γα)=022(1)=2=a2\alpha+\beta+\gamma=0=a_{1}, \alpha^{2}+\beta^{2}+\gamma^{2}=(\alpha+\beta+\gamma)^{2}-2(\alpha \beta+\beta \gamma+\gamma \alpha)=0^{2}-2(-1)=2=a_{2}, and of course α0+β0+γ0=3=a0\alpha^{0}+\beta^{0}+\gamma^{0}=3=a_{0}. Therefore,

an=αn+βn+γn(n=0,1,2,) a_{n}=\alpha^{n}+\beta^{n}+\gamma^{n} \quad(n=0,1,2, \ldots)

Using the fact that α,β,γ\alpha, \beta, \gamma satisfy the equation x3=x+1x^{3}=x+1 from (1), we get that

a3n=(α+1)n+(β+1)n+(γ+1)n=k=0n(nk)(αk+βk+γk)=k=0n(nk)ak(1)a_{3 n}=(\alpha+1)^{n}+(\beta+1)^{n}+(\gamma+1)^{n}=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\left(\alpha^{k}+\beta^{k}+\gamma^{k}\right)=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k} a_{k}(1) and an=(α31)n+(β31)n+(γ31)n=t=0n(a_{n}=\left(\alpha^{3}-1\right)^{n}+\left(\beta^{3}-1\right)^{n}+\left(\gamma^{3}-1\right)^{n}=\sum_{t=0}^{n}(-

For any prime pp and integer 1rp11 \leq r \leq p-1, (pr)=p(p1)(pr+1)r!\binom{p}{r}=\frac{p(p-1) \ldots(p-r+1)}{r!} is divisible by pp; therefore, according to (2),

apa0+(1)pa3pa0+(1)p(a0+ap)(modp) a_{p} \equiv a_{0}+(-1)^{p} a_{3 p} \equiv a_{0}+(-1)^{p}\left(a_{0}+a_{p}\right) \quad(\bmod p)

For p>2p>2, apap(modp)a_{p} \equiv-a_{p}(\bmod p), which implies p2app \mid 2 a_{p}. This leads to the statement of the problem.

II. solution. Let nn be a positive integer; inscribe a regular (convex) A1A2AnnA_{1} A_{2} \ldots A_{n} n-gon in a circle (allowing degenerate "1- and 2-gons" here and in the following). Let bnb_{n} be the number of convex polygons whose vertices are among A1,A2,,AnA_{1}, A_{2}, \ldots, A_{n}, and any two adjacent vertices are second or third neighbors in the original A1A2AnA_{1} A_{2} \ldots A_{n} polygon (one or two original vertices fall between them). We will show that bn=anb_{n}=a_{n} ( n=1n=1, 2,)2, \ldots). Clearly, b1=0=a1,b2=2=a2,b3=3=a3b_{1}=0=a_{1}, b_{2}=2=a_{2}, b_{3}=3=a_{3}; it is sufficient to prove the recursion bn=bn2+bn3b_{n}=b_{n-2}+b_{n-3} (n4)(n \geq 4). Consider an arbitrary polygon that meets the requirements; one of An,An1A_{n}, A_{n-1}, and An2A_{n-2} must appear as a vertex of this polygon, so the two largest numbered vertices of this polygon can be:

2(1) An\quad A_{n} and An2A_{n-2};

(2) An1A_{n-1} and An3A_{n-3};

(3) An2A_{n-2} and An4A_{n-4}; AnA_{n} and An3A_{n-3}

An1A_{n-1} and An4A_{n-4} An2A_{n-2} and An5A_{n-5}.

If we merge these two vertices and the original vertices between them (i.e., "pull them together"), and then continuously change the numbering of the vertices, we get a polygon inscribed in a regular n2n-2-gon in cases (1), (2), and (3), and in cases (4), (5), and (6), we get a polygon inscribed in a regular n3n-3-gon. All of these latter polygons do indeed occur, and precisely once in this way, so indeed bn=bn2+bn3b_{n}=b_{n-2}+b_{n-3}, hence bn=anb_{n}=a_{n}.

Now let n=pn=p be a prime. If SS is a properly inscribed polygon, then its rotations by 360pi\frac{360^{\circ}}{p} i around the center of the circle (i=1,2,,p)(i=1,2, \ldots, p) are also valid. These are all distinct, since if there were two identical ones, then SS would be mapped to itself by some 360pt\frac{360^{\circ}}{p} \cdot t rotation (1tp1)(1 \leq t \leq p-1). However, the 360ptj\frac{360^{\circ}}{p} t j rotations would also map SS to itself (j=1,2,,p1)(j=1,2, \ldots, p-1), and among these rotations, there is the 360p\frac{360}{p} rotation; this rotation, however, clearly does not map SS to itself.

Therefore, the apa_{p} polygons that meet the conditions can be divided into groups of pp, so papp \mid a_{p}.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.