Let x1,x2,…,xn (n≥2) be positive real numbers satisfying ∑i=1nxi=1. Prove that:i=1∑n1−xixi≥n−1∑i=1nxi.
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Official solution
1. Define the function and its properties: Let f(x)=1−xx. We need to show that this function is convex. To do this, we compute the second derivative of f(x).
2. Compute the first derivative: f′(x)=dxd(1−xx)=1−x1−x−21−xx=(1−x)3/2(1−x)−2x=2(1−x)3/22(1−x)−x=2(1−x)3/22−3x
3. Compute the second derivative: f′′(x)=dxd(2(1−x)3/22−3x) Using the quotient rule: f′′(x)=(1−x)3(2−3x)′(1−x)3/2−(2−3x)((1−x)3/2)′ Simplifying each term: (2−3x)′=−3 ((1−x)3/2)′=23(1−x)1/2(−1)=−23(1−x)1/2 Therefore: f′′(x)=(1−x)3−3(1−x)3/2−(2−3x)(−23(1−x)1/2)=(1−x)3−3(1−x)3/2+23(2−3x)(1−x)1/2 Simplifying further: f′′(x)=(1−x)5/2−3(1−x)+23(2−3x)=(1−x)5/2−3(1−x)+3−29x=(1−x)5/2−3+3x+3−29x=(1−x)5/23x−29x=2(1−x)5/26x−9x=2(1−x)5/2−3x Since x∈(0,1), f′′(x)>0. Thus, f(x) is convex.
4. Apply Jensen's Inequality: Since f(x) is convex and ∑i=1nxi=1, by Jensen's Inequality: i=1∑nf(xi)≥nf(n∑i=1nxi)=nf(n1) Calculate f(n1): f(n1)=1−n1n1=nnn−11=n(n−1)1 Therefore: i=1∑n1−xixi≥n(n−1)n=n−1n
5. Prove the final inequality using Cauchy-Schwarz: We need to show: n−1n≥n−1∑i=1nxi This simplifies to: n≥i=1∑nxi By the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: (i=1∑nxi)2≤ni=1∑nxi=n Taking the square root of both sides: i=1∑nxi≤n Thus: n−1n≥n−1∑i=1nxi
The final answer is i=1∑n1−xixi≥n−1∑i=1nxi
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added
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