Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 69 of 300 #1469 of 2000

Problem 1469

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Number theory Difficulty 7.1 Prove it

Let pp and aa be positive integer numbers having no common divisors except of 11. Prove that pp is prime if and only if all the coefficients of the polynomial F(x)=(xa)p(xpa) F(x) = (x-a)^p - (x^p - a) are divisible by pp.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

1. Lemma 1: If p p is prime, then (px)\binom{p}{x} is always divisible by p p for 1xp1 1 \le x \le p-1 .

Proof of Lemma 1:
(px)=p!x!(px)! \binom{p}{x} = \frac{p!}{x!(p-x)!}
Notice that the denominator x!(px)! x!(p-x)! is the product of numbers less than p p , so it can't possibly be divisible by p p . Since the numerator p! p! is divisible by p p , and the expression is obviously an integer, we can conclude that p(px) p \mid \binom{p}{x} .

\blacksquare

2. Only if direction: Assume p p is prime. We need to show that all coefficients of the polynomial F(x)=(xa)p(xpa) F(x) = (x-a)^p - (x^p - a) are divisible by p p .

- For p=2 p = 2 :
(xa)2(x2a)=x22ax+a2x2+a=2ax+a2+a (x-a)^2 - (x^2 - a) = x^2 - 2ax + a^2 - x^2 + a = -2ax + a^2 + a
Notice that:
2ax+a2+aa2+aa(a+1)0(mod2) -2ax + a^2 + a \equiv a^2 + a \equiv a(a+1) \equiv 0 \pmod{2}
Hence, all coefficients are divisible by 2 2 .

- For p p being an odd prime:
Using the binomial expansion:
(xa)p=xp(p1)xp1a+(p2)xp2a2+(a)p (x-a)^p = x^p - \binom{p}{1}x^{p-1}a + \binom{p}{2}x^{p-2}a^2 - \cdots + (-a)^p
Therefore:
(xa)p(xpa)=xp(p1)xp1a+(p2)xp2a2+(a)pxp+a (x-a)^p - (x^p - a) = x^p - \binom{p}{1}x^{p-1}a + \binom{p}{2}x^{p-2}a^2 - \cdots + (-a)^p - x^p + a
Simplifying, we get:
(p1)xp1a+(p2)xp2a2+(a)p+a -\binom{p}{1}x^{p-1}a + \binom{p}{2}x^{p-2}a^2 - \cdots + (-a)^p + a
By Lemma 1, each (pi)\binom{p}{i} for 1ip11 \le i \le p-1 is divisible by p p . Hence, all coefficients are divisible by p p .

3. If direction: Assume all coefficients of F(x)=(xa)p(xpa) F(x) = (x-a)^p - (x^p - a) are divisible by p p . We need to show that p p is prime.

- Suppose p p is not prime. Let d d be the largest prime factor of p p . Consider:
(pd)=p(p1)(p2)(pd+1)d! \binom{p}{d} = \frac{p(p-1)(p-2)\cdots (p-d+1)}{d!}
It is clear that exactly one of the terms in the numerator can be divisible by d d , so that must be p p . Since the denominator d! d! must have one factor of d d (since d d is prime), (pd)\binom{p}{d} has one less factor of d d than p p . Therefore, (pd)\binom{p}{d} can't possibly be divisible by p p .

- Since (pd)\binom{p}{d} is one of the coefficients (possibly multiplied by ±1\pm 1), not all of the coefficients are divisible by p p if p p is not prime. This contradicts our assumption that all coefficients are divisible by p p .

Hence, p p must be prime.

\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.