Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 52 of 300 #1452 of 2000

Problem 1452

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Algebra Difficulty 7.1 Prove it

Let nn be a positive integer and f:[0,1]Rf:[0,1]\to\mathbb R be a continuous function such that
01xkf(x)dx=1\int^1_0x^kf(x)dx=1for every k{0,1,,n1}k\in\{0,1,\ldots,n-1\}. Prove that
01f(x)2dxn2.\int^1_0f(x)^2dx\ge n^2.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

To prove that
01f(x)2dxn2, \int_0^1 f(x)^2 \, dx \ge n^2,
we will use the properties of orthonormal polynomials and the given conditions.

1. Legendre Polynomials and Orthonormal Basis:
Let {Pk}k=0\{P_k\}_{k=0}^{\infty} denote the sequence of Legendre polynomials. These polynomials form an orthonormal basis for L2([0,1])L^2([0,1]) when appropriately scaled. Specifically, let Qk=2k+1PkQ_k = \sqrt{2k+1} P_k, then {Qk}k=0\{Q_k\}_{k=0}^{\infty} form an orthonormal basis for L2([0,1])L^2([0,1]).

2. Inner Product and Orthonormality:
For any function fL2([0,1])f \in L^2([0,1]), we can express ff in terms of the orthonormal basis {Qk}\{Q_k\}:
f(x)=j=0f,QjQj(x), f(x) = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \langle f, Q_j \rangle Q_j(x),
where f,Qj\langle f, Q_j \rangle denotes the inner product:
f,Qj=01f(x)Qj(x)dx. \langle f, Q_j \rangle = \int_0^1 f(x) Q_j(x) \, dx.

3. Given Conditions:
The problem states that for every k{0,1,,n1}k \in \{0, 1, \ldots, n-1\},
01xkf(x)dx=1. \int_0^1 x^k f(x) \, dx = 1.
Since Pk(1)=1P_k(1) = 1 for Legendre polynomials, we have:
01Pk(x)f(x)dx=1. \int_0^1 P_k(x) f(x) \, dx = 1.

4. Norm Calculation:
Using the orthonormality of {Qk}\{Q_k\}, we can write:
01f(x)2dx=j=0f,Qj2. \int_0^1 f(x)^2 \, dx = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} |\langle f, Q_j \rangle|^2.
Since f,Qj=2j+101Pj(x)f(x)dx\langle f, Q_j \rangle = \sqrt{2j+1} \int_0^1 P_j(x) f(x) \, dx, for jn1j \le n-1, we have:
f,Qj=2j+1. \langle f, Q_j \rangle = \sqrt{2j+1}.
Therefore,
01f(x)2dxj=0n1f,Qj2=j=0n1(2j+1). \int_0^1 f(x)^2 \, dx \ge \sum_{j=0}^{n-1} |\langle f, Q_j \rangle|^2 = \sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (2j+1).

5. Summation:
The sum of the first nn odd numbers is given by:
j=0n1(2j+1)=n2. \sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (2j+1) = n^2.

Thus, we have:
01f(x)2dxn2. \int_0^1 f(x)^2 \, dx \ge n^2.

\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.