9. 243 Prove: For any real numbers a1,a2,⋯,an, there exists a natural number k,1⩽k⩽n, such that for any 1⩾b1⩾b2⋯⩾bn⩾0, we have i=1∑nbiai⩽1i=1∑kai∣
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Official solution
[Proof] Let s0=0,si=a1+a2+⋯+ai,i=1,2,⋯,n, then ai=si−si−1,i=1,2,⋯,n. Thus, we have ∣∑i=1nbiai∣=∣∑i=1nbi(si−si−1)∣=∑i=1nbisi−∑i=1n−1bi+1si.=∑i=1n−1(bi−bi+1)si+bnsn⩽∑i=1n−1∣bi−bi+1∣∣si∣+∣bn∣∣sn∣ Let ∣sk∣=max{∣s1∣,∣s2∣,⋯,∣sn∣} .
Since ∣bi−bi+1∣=bi−bi+1,∣bn∣=bn, we have i=1∑nbiai⩽(i=1∑n−1(bi−bi+1)+bn)∣sk∣=b1∣sk∣⩽∣sk∣
That is, ∣∑i=1nbiai∣⩽1∑i=1kai∣.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added
by this site.