Example 24 (Self-created problem, 2006. 12.17) Let a,b,c,d∈R−, and ac=1, then a+ab+1a+b+bc+1b+c+cd+1c+d+da+1d⩽34
Equality in (38) holds if and only if a=b=c=d=1.
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark
yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.
This is because The left side of the above equation =a+ab+1a+a+ab+1ab+a+ab+11+b+bc+1b−a+ab+1ab+c+ca+1c−a+ab+11=1+(b+bc+1)(a+ab+1)b(1−abc)−(c+ca+1)(a+ab+1)1−abc=1−a+ab+11−abc(c+ca+11−b+bc+1b)=1−(a+ab+1)(b+bc+1)(c+ca+1)(1−abc)2
Thus, The left side of equation (38) =(a+ab+1a+b+bc+1b+c+ca+1c)+(c+cd+1c+d+da+1d+a+ac+1a)−(c+ac+1c+a+ac+1a)=2−(a+ab+1)(b+bc+1)(c+ca+1)(1−abc)2−(c+cd+1)(d+da+1)(a+ac+1)(1−cda)2−[1−(a+ac+1)(c+ac+1)1+ac+(ac)2]=1−(a+ab+1)(b+bc+1)(2+c)(1−b)2−(c+cd+1)(d+da+1)(2+a)(1−d)2+(2+a)(2+c)3⩽1+(2+a)(2+c)3⩽1+31=34
Therefore, equation (38) holds, and equality is achieved if and only if a=b=c=d=1.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added
by this site.