74. Given positive integers n⩾2,a1⩽a2⩽⋯⩽an or a1⩾a2⩾⋯⩾an, and a1=an, positive numbers x,y satisfy yx⩾a1−ana1−a2, prove the inequality: a2x+a3ya1+a3x+a4ya2+⋯+anx+a1yan−1+a1x+a2yan⩾x+yn. (1991 Vietnam National Training Team Problem)
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Official solution
74. Let a1⩾a2⩾⋯⩾an, the original inequality is equivalent to (x+y)(a2x+a3ya1+a3x+a4ya2+⋯+anx+a1yan−1+a1x+a2yan⩾n
Let an+1=a1,an+2=a2, by the AM-GM inequality we have i=1∑nai+1x+ai+2yaix+ai+1y⩾nni=1∏nai+1x+ai+2yaix+ai+1y=n
It suffices to prove (x+y)i=1∑nai+1x+ai+2yai⩾i=1∑nai+1x+ai+2yaix+ai+1y
And (x+y)∑i=1nai+1x+ai+2yai−∑i=1nai+1x+ai+2yaix+ai+1y=∑i=1nai+1x+ai+2y(ai−ai+1)y=y∑i=1nai+1x+ai+2yai−ai+1
So it suffices to prove i=1∑nai+1x+ai+2yai−ai+1⩾0
Also i=1∑nai+1x+ai+2yai−ai+1=i=1∑n−1ai+1x+ai+2yai−ai+1−a1x+a2ya1−an=i=1∑n−1ai+1x+ai+2yai−ai+1−i=1∑n−1a1x+a2yai−ai+1=i=1∑n−1(ai−ai+1)(ai+1x+ai+2y1−a1x+a2y1)
Since ai⩾ai+1,i=1,2,⋯,n−1, for i=1,2,⋯,n−2, we have ai−ai+1⩾0, a1⩾ai+1,a2⩾ai+2, thus, ai+1x+ai+2y1⩾a1x+a2y1
At this point (ai−ai+1)(ai+1x+ai+2y1−a1x+a2y1)⩾0,i=1,2,⋯,n−2. For i=n−1,an−1−an⩾0, given condition yx⩾a1−ana1−a2⇔(a1−an)x⩾(a1−a2)y⇔a1x+a2y⩾anx+a1y⇔anx+a1y1⩾a1x+a2y1, so ( an−1− an)(anx+a1y1−a1x+a2y1)⩾0
In summary, ∑i=1n−1(ai−ai+1)(ai+1x+ai+2y1−a1x+a2y1)⩾0. Therefore, the original inequality holds.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added
by this site.