A trigonometric map is any one of sin, cos, tan, arcsin, arccos and arctan. Show that given any positive rational number x, one can find a finite sequence of trigonometric maps which take 0 to x. [So we need to show that we can always find a sequence of trigonometric maps ti so that: x1=t0(0),x2=t1(x1),…,xn=tn. 1(xn−1),x=tn(xn)⋅]
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark
yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.
Official solution
## Solution
We have cos2t+sin2t=1. Hence cost=cost/((cos2t+sin2t))=1/((1+tan2t)). So if we put tant=x, then costan−1x=1/(1+x). We also have cos(π/2−x)=sinx and tan(π/2−x)=1/tanx. So tan−1cos−1sin−1tan−1x=1/x(1). Hence also tan−1cos−1sin−1tan−1costan−1x=(x+1) (2). These two relations solve the problem.
Using (2) and iterating we can get for any positive integer n. Hence in particular we can get n for any positive integer n. Now suppose we want m/n with m and n relatively prime. We show that m/n can be achieved by induction on n. We have just dealt with the case n=1. Suppose we have dealt with all a/b with bn, then we can write m=qn+r with 0<r<n and use (2) to reduce the problem to getting r/n. If m<n, then put r=m. Now use (1) to reduce the problem to n/r, which is solved by induction.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
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