Olympiad Maths Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 207 of 400 #1207 of 2000

Problem 1207

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.3 Prove it

## Problem 2

A trigonometric map is any one of sin, cos, tan, arcsin, arccos and arctan. Show that given any positive rational number x\mathrm{x}, one can find a finite sequence of trigonometric maps which take 0 to x\mathrm{x}. [So we need to show that we can always find a sequence of trigonometric maps ti\mathrm{t}_{\mathrm{i}} so that: x1=t0(0),x2=t1(x1),,xn=tn\mathrm{x}_{1}=\mathrm{t}_{0}(0), \mathrm{x}_{2}=\mathrm{t}_{1}\left(\mathrm{x}_{1}\right), \ldots, \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{n}}=\mathrm{t}_{\mathrm{n}}. 1(xn1),x=tn(xn)]\left.1\left(\mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{n}-1}\right), \mathrm{x}=\mathrm{t}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{n}}\right) \cdot\right]

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

## Solution

We have cos2t+sin2t=1\cos ^{2} t+\sin ^{2} t=1. Hence cost=cost/((cos2t+sin2t))=1/((1+tan2t))\cos t=\cos t /\left(\sqrt{ }\left(\cos ^{2} t+\sin ^{2} t\right)\right)=1 /\left(\sqrt{ }\left(1+\tan ^{2} t\right)\right). So if we put tant=x\tan t=\sqrt{x}, then costan1x=1/(1+x)\cos \tan ^{-1} \sqrt{x}=1 / \sqrt{ }(1+x). We also have cos(π/2x)=sinx\cos (\pi / 2-x)=\sin x and tan(π/2x)=1/tanx\tan (\pi / 2-x)=1 / \tan x. So tan1cos1sin1tan\tan ^{-1} \cos ^{-1} \sin ^{-1} \tan ^{-} 1x=1/x(1){ }^{1} x=1 / x(1). Hence also tan1cos1sin1tan1costan1x=(x+1)\tan ^{-1} \cos ^{-1} \sin ^{-1} \tan ^{-1} \cos \tan ^{-1} \sqrt{x}=\sqrt{ }(x+1) (2). These two relations solve the problem.

Using (2) and iterating we can get \sqrt{ } for any positive integer nn. Hence in particular we can get n\mathrm{n} for any positive integer n\mathrm{n}. Now suppose we want m/n\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{n} with m\mathrm{m} and n\mathrm{n} relatively prime. We show that m/n\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{n} can be achieved by induction on nn. We have just dealt with the case n=1\mathrm{n}=1. Suppose we have dealt with all a/b\mathrm{a} / \mathrm{b} with b\mathrm{b} n\mathrm{n}, then we can write m=qn+r\mathrm{m}=\mathrm{qn}+\mathrm{r} with 0<r<n0<\mathrm{r}<\mathrm{n} and use (2) to reduce the problem to getting r/n\mathrm{r} / \mathrm{n}. If m<n\mathrm{m}<\mathrm{n}, then put r=m\mathrm{r}=\mathrm{m}. Now use (1) to reduce the problem to n/r\mathrm{n} / \mathrm{r}, which is solved by induction.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.