Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2011

Number theory Difficulty 4.8 AIME Prove it South Africa

For each positive integer aa we consider the sequence (an)(a_n) with a0=aa_0 = a and an=an1+40na_n = a_{n-1} + 40^n for n>0n > 0. Prove that every such sequence contains infinitely many numbers that are divisible by 20092009.

Solution

Since gcd(40,2009)=1\gcd(40, 2009) = 1, we have 40kφ(2009)1(mod2009)40^{k \cdot \varphi(2009)} \equiv 1 \pmod{2009} for all natural numbers kk. For n>φ(2009)n > \varphi(2009) the exponent n!n! is certainly a multiple of φ(2009)\varphi(2009), and therefore an+1an+1(mod2009)a_{n+1} \equiv a_n + 1 \pmod{2009}. This means that all values modulo 20092009 are taken cyclically and periodically, and all values are obtained infinitely often. Since this also for the value 00, the proof is complete.

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