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Number theory Difficulty 5.8 AIME, harder Prove it Ireland

Are there infinitely many pairs (a,b)(a, b) of positive integers such that
ab2+1andba2+1? a \mid b^2 + 1 \quad \text{and} \quad b \mid a^2 + 1?

Solution

Solution 1. If (a,b)(a, b) is a solution with a<ba < b, then so is (b,c)(b, c) where
c=b2+1a. c = \frac{b^2 + 1}{a}.
It is immediate that cb2+1c \mid b^2 + 1 so we have to show only that bc2+1b \mid c^2 + 1. We can calculate:
a2(c2+1)=(b2+1)2+a2=b2+2b+(a2+1)0(modb) a^2(c^2 + 1) = (b^2 + 1)^2 + a^2 = b^2 + 2b + (a^2 + 1) \equiv 0 \pmod{b}
As ba2+1b \mid a^2 + 1 then bb and a2a^2 are relatively prime, so ba2(c2+1)b \mid a^2(c^2 + 1) implies that bc2+1b \mid c^2 + 1. To complete the construction we just need to observe that a<ba < b implies ab<b2<b2+1ab < b^2 < b^2+1 and so b<cb < c. We can then use this rule and produce an infinitude of increasing solutions starting with (a,b)=(1,2)(a, b) = (1, 2).

Solution 2. Let FnF_n be nthn^{th} Fibonacci number, so that F0=0,F1=1,F2=1F_0 = 0, F_1 = 1, F_2 = 1 and Fn=Fn1+Fn2F_n = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}. Catalan's identity, shown by induction, states that:
Fn2Fn+rFnr=(1)nrFr2. F_n^2 - F_{n+r}F_{n-r} = (-1)^{n-r}F_r^2.
Putting r=2r = 2 and nn odd gives Fn2+1=Fn+2Fn2F_n^2 + 1 = F_{n+2}F_{n-2} which provides us with an infinitude of solutions of the form (a,b)=(Fn,Fn+2)(a, b) = (F_n, F_{n+2}).

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.