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Hong Kong competition problems, 2016

Algebra Difficulty 6.5 National Olympiad Prove it Hong Kong

Determine all positive integers nn for which there exist pairwise distinct positive real numbers a1,a2,…,ana_1, a_2, \dots, a_n satisfying {ai+(−1)iai∣1≤i≤n}={ai∣1≤i≤n}\{a_i + \frac{(-1)^i}{a_i} \mid 1 \le i \le n\} = \{a_i \mid 1 \le i \le n\}.

Solution

nn can be any odd integer greater than 11.

For even nn, suppose aj+(−1)jaj=bja_j + \frac{(-1)^j}{a_j} = b_j for 1≤j≤n1 \le j \le n, where {bj}\{b_j\} is a permutation of {aj}\{a_j\}. The relation can be rewritten as
aj2−ajbj=(−1)j+1. a_j^2 - a_j b_j = (-1)^{j+1}.
Summing over all jj's, we obtain
∑j=1n(aj2−ajbj)=0 \sum_{j=1}^n (a_j^2 - a_j b_j) = 0
since nn is even. As {bj}\{b_j\} is a permutation of {aj}\{a_j\}, this implies
12∑j=1n(aj−bj)2=0. \frac{1}{2} \sum_{j=1}^n (a_j - b_j)^2 = 0.
Hence, we must have aj=bja_j = b_j, which is impossible since aj+(−1)jaj=bja_j + \frac{(-1)^j}{a_j} = b_j. Therefore, there is no such sequence.

For n=1n=1, we need a1−1a1=a1a_1 - \frac{1}{a_1} = a_1, which is impossible.

So it remains to show that such a sequence exists when n>1n > 1 is odd. First we construct a sequence a1,a2,…,an+1a_1, a_2, \dots, a_{n+1} such that a1=1+xa_1 = 1 + x with x>0x > 0, and
aj+1=aj+(−1)jaj a_{j+1} = a_j + \frac{(-1)^j}{a_j}
for 1≤j≤n1 \le j \le n. It suffices to show a1,a2,…,ana_1, a_2, \dots, a_n are pairwise distinct, and choose xx such that an+1=a1a_{n+1} = a_1.

Note that
aj+2=aj+1+(−1)j+1aj+1=aj+(−1)jaj+(−1)j+1(aj+(−1)jaj)−1=aj+1aj3+(−1)jaj. a_{j+2} = a_{j+1} + \frac{(-1)^{j+1}}{a_{j+1}} = a_j + \frac{(-1)^j}{a_j} + (-1)^{j+1} \left( a_j + \frac{(-1)^j}{a_j} \right)^{-1} = a_j + \frac{1}{a_j^3 + (-1)^j a_j}.
For odd jj, since a1>1a_1 > 1, we can prove inductively that aj+2>aj>1a_{j+2} > a_j > 1. Also, for even jj, since a2=a1−1a1>0a_2 = a_1 - \frac{1}{a_1} > 0, we can prove inductively that aj+2>aj>0a_{j+2} > a_j > 0.

Therefore, if we can prove that an+1=a1a_{n+1} = a_1, then we have
0<a2<a4<⋯<an+1=a1<a3<⋯<an, 0 < a_2 < a_4 < \dots < a_{n+1} = a_1 < a_3 < \dots < a_n,
and so all terms are pairwise distinct positive real numbers.

By using the recurrence relation, it is obvious that an+1a_{n+1} is a continuous function of a1a_1. When a1a_1 goes to 11, we have
an+1−a1≥a4−a1=a2+1a23+a2−a1→∞ a_{n+1} - a_1 \ge a_4 - a_1 = a_2 + \frac{1}{a_2^3 + a_2} - a_1 \to \infty
since a2→0a_2 \to 0. This shows an+1−a1>0a_{n+1} - a_1 > 0 for some xx.

On the other hand, for even jj, as aj≥a2=1+x−11+x=2x+x21+x>xa_j \ge a_2 = 1+x - \frac{1}{1+x} = \frac{2x+x^2}{1+x} > x, we have
aj+2=aj+1aj3+aj<aj+1x3, a_{j+2} = a_j + \frac{1}{a_j^3 + a_j} < a_j + \frac{1}{x^3},
and hence an+1<a2+n−12x3a_{n+1} < a_2 + \frac{n-1}{2x^3} by summing over all jj's. It follows that
an+1−a1<a2+n−12x3−a1=n−12x3−11+x=(n−1)+(n−1)x−2x32x3(1+x)<0 a_{n+1} - a_1 < a_2 + \frac{n-1}{2x^3} - a_1 = \frac{n-1}{2x^3} - \frac{1}{1+x} = \frac{(n-1) + (n-1)x - 2x^3}{2x^3(1+x)} < 0
for sufficiently large xx.

Now, by the intermediate value theorem, there exists x>0x > 0 such that an+1=a1a_{n+1} = a_1. So we are done.

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