Prove that for every n≥1, then v3(un)=v3(n), where (un) is the sequence with u0=0, u1=1 and un+2=2un+1+2un,∀n≥0.
Solution
We have the general formula of the given sequence as un=23(1+3)n−(1−3)n. Considering the periodicity of the remainder when divided by 3 of the given sequence, we have 0,1,2,0,1,2,… So obviously u3k+1 and u3k+2 are not divisible by 3, and then v3(u3k+1)=v3(u3k+2)=0.
Next, consider n=3k with k∈Z+. We have u3k=23(1+3)3k−(1−3)3k=23[(1+3)k−(1−3)k][(4+23)k+(4−23)k+(−2)k]=uk[(4+23)k+(4−23)k+(−2)k].
Put ak=(4+23)k+(4−23)k+(−2)k then it is easy to check that a0=3, a1=6, a2=60 and an+3=6an+2+12an+1−8an,∀n≥0. Notice that a0,a1,a2 are all divisible by 3 so 3∣an for all n. Thus 9∣6an+2+12an+1 and followed by an+3≡−8an≡an(mod9). On the other hand, the first three terms of the sequence are not divisible by 9, so the same applies to all terms of the sequence. From that we have v3(an)=1 for all n. So v3(u3k)=v3(uk)+v3(ak)=1+v3(uk). From here it is easy to see that if we put n=3tm with gcd(m,3)=1 and t∈Z+ then v3(un)=v3(u3t−1m)+1=⋯=v3(um)+t=t.
Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track
puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.
Source: MathNet,
licensed CC-BY-4.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.