AlgebraDifficulty 7.7National Olympiad, round 2Prove itBaltic Way
Let f:Z→Z be a function such that, for all integers x and y, the following holds: f(f(x)−y)=f(y)−f(f(x)). Show that f is bounded, ie. that there is a C such that −C<f(x)<C for all x.
Solution
First, setting y=f(x) one obtains f(0)=0. Secondly y=0 yields f(f(x))=0 for all x, thus f(f(x)−y)=f(y). Setting x=0 yields f(−y)=f(y), and finally y:=−z yields f(f(x)+z)=f(−z)=f(z). If f(x)=0 for all x, then f is obviously bounded. If on the other hand there exists an x0 such that f(x0)=0, then, with x=x0, the last equality gives that f is periodic with period ∣f(x0)∣ and thus f must be bounded.
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