Lemma. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree greater than or equal to 1.
P′(f(x))=∣{p∈P∣p∣f(x),∃x∈Z}∣=∞
Proof of lemma: Assume f(x)=bkxk+⋯+b0, k≥1. Suppose the contrary, P′(f(x))<∞; we have above prime numbers finite p1,…,ps. Now substituting x=b0tp1…ps, we get
f(x)=b0(bk⋅b0k−1(tp1…ps)k+⋯+1)
and there exists p-prime number such that
p∣bk⋅b0k−1(tp1…ps)k+⋯+1,(p,p1…ps)=1.
This leads to a contradiction.
Now let us solve the problem. From the given condition we have (f,f′)=1. Hence there exist g,h∈Z[x] such that
f(x)⋅g(x)+f′(x)⋅h(x)=a,0=a∈Z.(1)
Now we will show it is enough that there exists x0∈Z such that for arbitrary p∈P′(f(x)), and p>∣a∣:ordp(f(x0))=k. If p∈P′(f(x)) then there exists x0∈Z such that p∣f(x0).
Moreover, if pα∣f(x0) then there is a x0′∈Z such that pα+1∣f(x0′). Also p>∣a∣ from here, we can see that (f′(x0),p)=1.
If we put x=pα⋅t+x0, here s≥1:
(pαt+x0)s≡s⋅(tpα)⋅x0s−1+x0s(modpα+1)
Thus f(pα⋅t+x0)≡tpαf′(x0)+f(x0)(modpα+1); here we have (p,f′(x0))=1. Therefore there exists t∈Z such that
p∣t⋅f′(x0)+pαf(x0).
Now assume that pk+1∣f(x0). Thus substituting
x=pk+x0:f(pk+x0)≡pkf′(x0)+f(x0).
Otherwise, that is ordp(f(x0+pk))=k.