Answer: f(x)=x for all real x.
From the first equation we have by induction that
f(x+n)=f(x)+n(1)
for every real x and integer n. Since x4−x2=(x2−21)2−41, for every y≥−41 there is x such that y=x4−x2, implying
f(y)=f(x4−x2)=f(x)4−f(x)2=(f(x)2−21)2−41≥−41.
For every x we have x={x}+[x] and 0≤{x}<1 (in particular, {x}>−41 and [x]>x−1),
implying
f(x)=f({x})+[x]>−41+(x−1)>x−2.(2)
Suppose there is x such that t=f(x)−x=0. Then for every integer n we have
f(x+n)4−f(x+n)2=f((x+n)4−(x+n)2),
giving
(x+n+t)4−(x+n+t)2>(x+n)4−(x+n)2−2,
and thus
4t(x+n)3+6t2(x+n)2+2t(2t2−1)(x+n)+t4−t2+2>0(3)
for every integer n, which is impossible as if t>0, then for n→−∞ we get a contradiction. If t<0, then for n→∞ we again get a contradiction. Therefore, f(x)=x for all real x which is easy to check works for both given equations.