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IMO Team Selection Contest

Number theory Difficulty 7.3 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Estonia

Prove that if nn and kk are positive integers such that 1<k<n−11 < k < n-1, then the binomial coefficient (nk)\binom{n}{k} is divisible by at least two different primes.

Solutions — 2

Solution 1

Assume w.l.o.g. that n≥2kn \ge 2k (if n<2kn < 2k, then interchange the roles of kk and n−kn-k). Let pp be an arbitrary prime number. Consider the numbers that remain into the numerator of the expression
(nk)=n⋅(n−1)⋯(n−k+1)k⋅(k−1)⋯1 \binom{n}{k} = \frac{n \cdot (n-1) \cdots (n-k+1)}{k \cdot (k-1) \cdots 1}
after reducing all factors by the highest power of pp by which they are divisible. Suppose that some two of the kk factors resulting after this step are equal. Then the corresponding initial factors are of the form s⋅pis \cdot p^i and s⋅pjs \cdot p^j, where i>ji > j. But then n≥s⋅pi≥p⋅s⋅pj>p⋅(n−k)≥2⋅(n−k)n \ge s \cdot p^i \ge p \cdot s \cdot p^j > p \cdot (n-k) \ge 2 \cdot (n-k), which contradicts the assumption n≥2kn \ge 2k. Hence the kk new factors are pairwise different. As 1<k<n−11 < k < n-1, the numerator initially contains at least two consecutive numbers, at least one of which is not divisible by pp. This number does not change in the process described above. By the assumption n≥2kn \ge 2k, this number is greater than kk. Consequently, the product remaining in the numerator after elimination of powers of pp is greater than the denominator k⋅(k−1)⋯1k \cdot (k-1) \cdots 1. This means that the powers of pp in the original numerator cannot be completely cancelled out with the denominator. So the canonical representation of (nk)\binom{n}{k} cannot consist of a power of pp only.

Solution 2

Suppose that for some nn and kk,
(nk)=n⋅(n−1)⋯(n−k+1)k⋅(k−1)⋯1=pt, \binom{n}{k} = \frac{n \cdot (n-1) \cdots (n-k+1)}{k \cdot (k-1) \cdots 1} = p^t,
where pp is a prime number and tt is some positive integer. Let mm be a number in {n,n−1,…,n−k+1}\{n, n-1, \dots, n-k+1\}, in the canonical representation of which the exponent of pp is the largest. Then the exponent of pp in the canonical representation of n,n−1,...,m+1n, n-1, ..., m+1 coincides with that in the canonical representation of n−m,n−m−1,...,1n-m, n-m-1, ..., 1, respectively. Similarly, the exponent of pp in the canonical representation of m−1,...,n−k+1m-1, ..., n-k+1 coincides with that in the canonical representation of 1,...,m−1−n+k1, ..., m-1-n+k, respectively. Consequently, the exponent of pp in the canonical representation of the product n(n−1)...(m+1)(m−1)...(n−k+1)n(n-1)...(m+1)(m-1)...(n-k+1) equals to that in the canonical representation of the product (n−m)!(m−1−n+k)!(n-m)!(m-1-n+k)!. Since
k!(n−m)!(m−1−n+k)!=k⋅(k−1)!(n−m)!(k−1−n+m)!=k⋅(k−1n−m) \frac{k!}{(n-m)!(m-1-n+k)!} = k \cdot \frac{(k-1)!}{(n-m)!(k-1-n+m)!} = k \cdot \binom{k-1}{n-m}
is clearly an integer, the exponent of pp in the canonical representation of (n−m)!(m−1−n+k)!(n-m)!(m-1-n+k)! does not exceed that in the canonical representation of k!k!. Hence, the exponent of pp in the canonical representation of (nk)\binom{n}{k} does not exceed that in the canonical representation of mm. As the assumptions of the problem imply (nk)≥(n2)>n≥m\binom{n}{k} \ge \binom{n}{2} > n \ge m, this leads to a contradiction.

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