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Harvard-MIT Mathematics Tournament

Combinatorics Difficulty 5.3 AIME, harder Prove it United States

Problem:
A cell of a 2-configuration of a set AA is a nonempty subset CC of AA such that
i. for any two distinct elements a,ba, b of CC, there exists a sequence c0,c1,…,cnc_{0}, c_{1}, \ldots, c_{n} of elements of AA with c0=a,cn=bc_{0}=a, c_{n}=b, and such that {c0,c1},{c1,c2},…,{cn−1,cn}\left\{c_{0}, c_{1}\right\},\left\{c_{1}, c_{2}\right\}, \ldots,\left\{c_{n-1}, c_{n}\right\} are all elements of the 2-configuration, and
ii. if aa is an element of CC and bb is an element of AA but not of CC, there does NOT exist a sequence c0,c1,…,cnc_{0}, c_{1}, \ldots, c_{n} of elements of AA with c0=a,cn=bc_{0}=a, c_{n}=b, and such that {c0,c1},{c1,c2},…,{cn−1,cn}\left\{c_{0}, c_{1}\right\},\left\{c_{1}, c_{2}\right\}, \ldots,\left\{c_{n-1}, c_{n}\right\} are all elements of the 2-configuration.
Also, we define a 2-configuration of AA to be barren if there is no subset {a0,a1,…,an}\left\{a_{0}, a_{1}, \ldots, a_{n}\right\} of AA, with n≥2n \geq 2, such that {a0,a1},{a1,a2},…,{an−1,an}\left\{a_{0}, a_{1}\right\},\left\{a_{1}, a_{2}\right\}, \ldots,\left\{a_{n-1}, a_{n}\right\} and {an,a0}\left\{a_{n}, a_{0}\right\} are all elements of the 2-configuration.
Show that, given any 2-configuration of a set AA, every element of AA belongs to exactly one cell.

Solution

Solution:
First, given aa, let CaC_{a} be the set of all b∈Ab \in A for which there exists a sequence a=c0,c1,…,cn=ba=c_{0}, c_{1}, \ldots, c_{n}=b as in the definition of a cell. Certainly a∈Caa \in C_{a} (take n=0n=0); we claim that CaC_{a} is a cell. If b,b′∈Cab, b^{\prime} \in C_{a}, then there exist sequences a=c0,c1,…,cn=ba=c_{0}, c_{1}, \ldots, c_{n}=b and a=c0′,c1′,…,cm′=b′a=c_{0}^{\prime}, c_{1}^{\prime}, \ldots, c_{m}^{\prime}=b^{\prime}, so the sequence b=cn,cn−1,…,c1,c0,c1′,…,cm′=b′b=c_{n}, c_{n-1}, \ldots, c_{1}, c_{0}, c_{1}^{\prime}, \ldots, c_{m}^{\prime}=b^{\prime} shows that the first condition is met.

For the second, suppose that there does exist a sequence b=c0,c1,…,cn=b′b=c_{0}, c_{1}, \ldots, c_{n}=b^{\prime} with b∈Ca,b′∉Cab \in C_{a}, b^{\prime} \notin C_{a}. Then, concatenating with our sequence from aa to bb, we get a sequence from aa to b′b^{\prime}, contradicting the assumption b′∉Cab^{\prime} \notin C_{a}. Thus, the second condition holds, and CaC_{a} is a cell. So aa lies in at least one cell.

But now, note that if CC is a cell containing aa, then all bb for which such a sequence from aa to bb exists must lie in CC (or the second condition is violated), and if no such sequence exists, then bb cannot lie in CC (or the first condition is violated). Thus, the elements of CC are uniquely determined, so there is exactly one cell containing aa, and the proof is complete.

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