Solution:
We'll prove it by induction.
For n=1 the desired result becomes 1>x1 which is true.
Let the result be true for some natural number n≥1.
We'll prove it to be true for n+1 as well, and we'll be done.
So let x1,x2,…,xn,xn+1 be n+1 given real numbers with 0<xi<1, for any i. We wish to show that
1+1≤i<j≤n+1∑xixj>x1+x2+…+xn+xn+1
If 1≥x1+x2+…+xn then we rewrite (5) equivalently as
1−(x1+x2+…+xn)+xn+1(x1+x2+…+xn−1)+1≤i<j≤n∑xixj>0
This is also written as
(1−xn+1)[1−(x1+x2+…+xn)]+1≤i<j≤n∑xixj>0
which is clearly true.
If instead x1+x2+…+xn>1 then xn+1(x1+x2+…+xn)>xn+1, i.e.
xn+1x1+xn+1x2+…+xn+1xn>xn+1
By the induction hypothesis applied to the n real numbers x1,x2,…,xn we also know that
1+1≤i<j≤n∑xixj>i=1∑nxi
Adding (6) and (7) together we get the validity of (5) in this case too, and we are done.