Maths Olympiad Prep

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Taiwan IMO Selection Camp

Algebra Difficulty 5.5 AIME, harder Prove it Taiwan

Find all pairs of functions (f,g)(f, g) mapping the set of positive integers to the set of positive integers satisfying
fg(n)+1(n)+gf(n)(n)=f(n+1)−g(n+1)+1 f^{g(n)+1}(n) + g^{f(n)}(n) = f(n+1) - g(n+1) + 1
for all positive integers nn. Here f1(n)=f(n)f^1(n) = f(n), fk+1(n)=f(fk(n))f^{k+1}(n) = f(f^k(n)) are defined.

Solution

The only pair of functions (f,g)(f, g) satisfying the statement of the problem is f(n)=n,g(n)=1f(n) = n, g(n) = 1.
From the condition we know that for all positive integers nn we have
f(fg(n)(n))<f(n+1). f(f^{g(n)}(n)) < f(n+1).
Let us list all the values that the function ff can attain in increasing order as y1<y2<…y_1 < y_2 < \dots (this sequence may be finite or infinite in length). We will next use mathematical induction to prove that:
(i)n:f(x)=yn if and only if x=n, (i)_n : f(x) = y_n \text{ if and only if } x = n,
(ii)n:yn=n. (ii)_n : y_n = n.

nn has f(x)=a=yaf(x) = a = y_a if and only if x=ax = a. Note that this also means that for any 1≤a<n1 \le a < n
and positive integer k,fk(x)=ak, f^k(x) = a if and only if x=ax = a.
Since for y1,y2,⋯ ,yny_1, y_2, \cdots, y_n there is exactly one positive integer corresponding to each of them under ff, therefore yn+1y_{n+1} exists. Take any positive integer xx such that f(x)=yn+1f(x) = y_{n+1}, then xx must be greater than nn (according to (i)1,⋯ ,(i)n(i)_1, \cdots, (i)_n). Substituting x−1x-1 into the above inequality gives
f(fg(x−1)(x−1))<f(x)=yn+1, f(f^{g(x-1)}(x-1)) < f(x) = y_{n+1},
therefore if we denote fg(x−1)(x−1)=bf^{g(x-1)}(x-1) = b, then we have
b∈1,⋯ ,n b \in 1, \cdots, n
If b<nb < n, then we would have x−1=b<nx - 1 = b < n (because fk(x−1)=b<nf^k(x - 1) = b < n
if and only if x−1=bx - 1 = b), which contradicts x>nx > n. Therefore b=nb = n, hence yn=ny_n = n (because we already know
yn−1=n−1y_{n-1} = n - 1, so nn is the smallest positive integer in the range that is greater than yn−1y_{n-1}), and this proves (ii)n(ii)_n.
So according to fg(x−1)(x−1)=nf^{g(x-1)}(x-1) = n and (i)n(i)_n, we know that x−1=nx - 1 = n, that is, the only possible
value of xx is x=n+1x = n + 1, and this also proves (i)n+1(i)_{n+1}.
By mathematical induction we can know that (i)n(i)_n and (ii)n(ii)_n hold for all positive integers nn. Therefore f(n)=nf(n) = n. Substituting back into the original condition of the problem, we obtain gn(n)+g(n+1)=2g^n(n) + g(n+1) = 2. Since the range of g(n)g(n) is the positive integers, we can immediately deduce that g(n)=1g(n) = 1.

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