Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2017

Number theory Difficulty 5.6 AIME, harder Prove it Canada

Let ff be a function from the set of positive integers to itself such that, for every nn, the number of positive integer divisors of nn is equal to f(f(n))f(f(n)). For example, f(f(6))=4f(f(6)) = 4 and f(f(25))=3f(f(25)) = 3. Prove that if pp is prime then f(p)f(p) is also prime.

Solution

Let d(n)=f(f(n))d(n) = f(f(n)) denote the number of divisors of nn and observe that f(d(n))=f(f(f(n)))=d(f(n))f(d(n)) = f(f(f(n))) = d(f(n)) for all nn. Also note that because all divisors of nn are distinct positive integers between 11 and nn, including 11 and nn, and excluding n1n-1 if n>2n > 2, it follows that 2d(n)<n2 \le d(n) < n for all n>2n > 2. Furthermore d(1)=1d(1) = 1 and d(2)=2d(2) = 2.

We first will show that f(2)=2f(2) = 2. Let m=f(2)m = f(2) and note that 2=d(2)=f(f(2))=f(m)2 = d(2) = f(f(2)) = f(m). If m2m \ge 2, then let m0m_0 be the smallest positive integer satisfying that m02m_0 \ge 2 and f(m0)=2f(m_0) = 2. It follows that f(d(m0))=d(f(m0))=d(2)=2f(d(m_0)) = d(f(m_0)) = d(2) = 2. By the minimality of m0m_0, it follows that d(m0)m0d(m_0) \ge m_0, which implies that m0=2m_0 = 2. Therefore if m2m \ge 2, it follows that f(2)=2f(2) = 2. It suffices to examine the case in which f(2)=m=1f(2) = m = 1. If m=1m = 1, then f(1)=f(f(2))=2f(1) = f(f(2)) = 2 and furthermore, each prime pp satisfies that d(f(p))=f(d(p))=f(2)=1d(f(p)) = f(d(p)) = f(2) = 1 which implies that f(p)=1f(p) = 1. Therefore d(f(p2))=f(d(p2))=f(3)=1d(f(p^2)) = f(d(p^2)) = f(3) = 1 which implies that f(p2)=1f(p^2) = 1 for any prime pp. This implies that 3=d(p2)=f(f(p2))=f(1)=23 = d(p^2) = f(f(p^2)) = f(1) = 2, which is a contradiction. Therefore m1m \ne 1 and f(2)=2f(2) = 2.

It now follows that if pp is prime then 2=f(2)=f(d(p))=d(f(p))2 = f(2) = f(d(p)) = d(f(p)) which implies that f(p)f(p) is prime. \square

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