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Algebra Difficulty 6.7 National Olympiad Prove it United States

Problem:
A sequence of positive integers a1,a2,a3,…a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}, \ldots satisfies

an+1=n⌊ann⌋+1 a_{n+1}=n\left\lfloor\frac{a_{n}}{n}\right\rfloor+1

for all positive integers nn. If a30=30a_{30}=30, how many possible values can a1a_{1} take? (For a real number xx, ⌊x⌋\lfloor x\rfloor denotes the largest integer that is not greater than xx.)

Solution

Solution:
It is straightforward to show that if a1=1a_{1}=1, then an=na_{n}=n for all nn. Since an+1a_{n+1} is an increasing function in ana_{n}, it follows that the set of possible a1a_{1} is of the form {1,2,…,m}\{1,2, \ldots, m\} for some mm, which will be the answer to the problem.

Consider the sequence bn=an+1−1b_{n}=a_{n+1}-1, which has the recurrence
bn+1=n⌊bn+1n⌋. b_{n+1}=n\left\lfloor\frac{b_{n}+1}{n}\right\rfloor .
It has the property that bnb_{n} is divisible by nn. Rearranging the recurrence, we see that
bn+1n+1≤bn+1n+1<bn+1n+1+1 \frac{b_{n+1}}{n+1} \leq \frac{b_{n}+1}{n+1}<\frac{b_{n+1}}{n+1}+1
and as the bib_{i} are integers, we get bn+1−1≤bn<bn+1+nb_{n+1}-1 \leq b_{n}<b_{n+1}+n. For n≥2n \geq 2, this means that the largest possible value of bnb_{n} (call this bn∗b_{n}^{*} ) is the smallest multiple of nn which is at least bn+1b_{n+1}. Also, since b1=b0+1b_{1}=b_{0}+1, we find b0∗=b1∗−1b_{0}^{*}=b_{1}^{*}-1, meaning that the largest value for a1a_{1} is b1∗b_{1}^{*}, and thus the answer is b1∗b_{1}^{*}. We have now derived a procedure for deriving b1∗b_{1}^{*} from b29∗=29b_{29}^{*}=29. To speed up the computation, let cn=bn∗/nc_{n}=b_{n}^{*} / n. Then, since
bn∗=n⌈bn+1∗n⌉ b_{n}^{*}=n\left\lceil\frac{b_{n+1}^{*}}{n}\right\rceil
we find
cn=⌈n+1ncn+1⌉=cn+1+⌈cn+1n⌉. c_{n}=\left\lceil\frac{n+1}{n} c_{n+1}\right\rceil=c_{n+1}+\left\lceil\frac{c_{n+1}}{n}\right\rceil .
We now start from c29=1c_{29}=1 and wish to find c1c_{1}.

Applying the recurrence, we find c28=2,c27=3c_{28}=2, c_{27}=3, and so on until we reach c15=15c_{15}=15. Then, ⌈cn+1/n⌉\left\lceil c_{n+1} / n\right\rceil becomes greater than 1 and we find c14=17,c13=19c_{14}=17, c_{13}=19, and so on until c11=23c_{11}=23. The rest can be done manually, with c10=26,c9=29,c8=33,c7=38,c6=45,c5=54,c4=68,c3=91,c2=137c_{10}=26, c_{9}=29, c_{8}=33, c_{7}=38, c_{6}=45, c_{5}=54, c_{4}=68, c_{3}=91, c_{2}=137, and c1=274c_{1}=274. The last few steps may be easier to perform by converting back into the bn∗b_{n}^{*}.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.