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Romanian Mathematical Olympiad

Algebra Difficulty 6.9 National Olympiad Prove it Romania

Let f:[0,∞)→[0,∞)f : [0, \infty) \to [0, \infty) be a continuous bijective function, such that
lim⁡x→∞f−1(f(x)/x)x=1. \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(f(x)/x)}{x} = 1.

a) Show that lim⁡x→∞f(x)x=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{x} = \infty and lim⁡x→∞f−1(ax)f−1(x)=1\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(ax)}{f^{-1}(x)} = 1, for any a>0a > 0.

b) Give an example of a function ff that satisfies the conditions from the statement.

Solution

a) Since ff is continuous and bijective, we deduce that f(0)=0f(0) = 0 and ff is increasing, with lim⁡x→∞f(x)=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = \infty. Then f−1:[0,∞)→[0,∞)f^{-1} : [0, \infty) \to [0, \infty) is also increasing, with f−1(0)=0f^{-1}(0) = 0 and lim⁡x→∞f−1(x)=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} f^{-1}(x) = \infty. The limit from the hypothesis ensures the existence of a number u>0u > 0 such that f−1(f(x)/x)x>12\frac{f^{-1}(f(x)/x)}{x} > \frac{1}{2}, for any x>ux > u. Therefore, f(x)x>f(x2)\frac{f(x)}{x} > f(\frac{x}{2}), for any x>ux > u. Since lim⁡x→∞f(x2)=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} f(\frac{x}{2}) = \infty, we obtain lim⁡x→∞f(x)x=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{x} = \infty. Let a>0a > 0 be an arbitrary fixed number.

The case a∈(0,1)a \in (0, 1). There is t>0t > 0 such that f−1(x)>1af^{-1}(x) > \frac{1}{a}, for any x>tx > t. Hence
f−1(x)>f−1(ax)=f−1(af(f−1(x)))>f−1(f(f−1(x))f−1(x)), for any x>t. f^{-1}(x) > f^{-1}(ax) = f^{-1}(af(f^{-1}(x))) > f^{-1}\left(\frac{f(f^{-1}(x))}{f^{-1}(x)}\right), \text{ for any } x > t.
We obtain
f−1(f(f−1(x))/f−1(x))f−1(x)<f−1(ax)f−1(x)<1, for any x>t. \frac{f^{-1}(f(f^{-1}(x))/f^{-1}(x))}{f^{-1}(x)} < \frac{f^{-1}(ax)}{f^{-1}(x)} < 1, \text{ for any } x > t.
From the assumption and the condition lim⁡x→∞f−1(x)=∞\lim_{x \to \infty} f^{-1}(x) = \infty, we get
lim⁡x→∞f−1(f(f−1(x))/f−1(x))f−1(x)=y=f−1(x)lim⁡y→∞f−1(f(y)/y)y=1. \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(f(f^{-1}(x))/f^{-1}(x))}{f^{-1}(x)} \underset{y=f^{-1}(x)}{=} \lim_{y \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(f(y)/y)}{y} = 1.
The case a=1a = 1 is clear.

The sandwich theorem ensures lim⁡x→∞f−1(ax)f−1(x)=1\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(ax)}{f^{-1}(x)} = 1.

The case a∈(1,∞)a \in (1, \infty). Then b=1/a∈(0,1)b = 1/a \in (0, 1). From the previous case, we have
lim⁡x→∞f−1(ax)f−1(x)=lim⁡x→∞(f−1(x)f−1(ax))−1=lim⁡x→∞(f−1(b(ax))f−1(ax))−1=1−1=1. \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(ax)}{f^{-1}(x)} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( \frac{f^{-1}(x)}{f^{-1}(ax)} \right)^{-1} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( \frac{f^{-1}(b(ax))}{f^{-1}(ax)} \right)^{-1} = 1^{-1} = 1.
In conclusion, lim⁡x→∞f−1(ax)f−1(x)=1\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f^{-1}(ax)}{f^{-1}(x)} = 1, for any a>0a > 0.

b) Example. The bijective function f:[0,∞)→[0,∞)f : [0, \infty) \to [0, \infty), f(x)=ex−1f(x) = e^x - 1, with the inverse f−1:[0,∞)→[0,∞)f^{-1} : [0, \infty) \to [0, \infty), f−1(x)=ln⁡(x+1)f^{-1}(x) = \ln(x + 1), satisfies the conditions from the statement.

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