Number theoryDifficulty 5.5AIME, harderProve itIndia
Show that there exist infinitely many pairs (a,b) of positive integers with the property that a+b divides ab+1, a−b divides ab−1, b>1 and a>b3−1.
Solution
Observe b2−1=b(a+b)−(ab+1) and b2−1=b(a−b)−(ab−1). Hence a+b and a−b both divide b2−1. Thus lcm(a+b,a−b) divides b2−1. Since both are positive, lcm(a+b,a−b)≤b2−1. Let d=gcd(a,b). Then d∣ab and d∣a+b∣ab+1. Hence d∣1 showing d=1. If e=gcd(a+b,a−b), then e∣2a and e∣2b so that e∣gcd(2a,2b). But gcd(2a,2b)=2gcd(a,b)=2. Thus e∣2 and hence e≤2. Hence lcm(a+b,a−b)=gcd(a+b,a−b)(a+b)(a−b)≥2a2−b2. It follows that a2−b2≤2(b2−1) or a2−3b2≤−2. Suppose a and b are positive integers such that a2−3b2=−2. Then a and b have same parity. For such a pair (a,b), we have ab+1=ab+23b2−a2=(a+b)23b−a, ab−1=ab−23b2−a2=(a−b)2a+3b. Hence a+b divides ab+1 and a−b divides ab−1. We also observe that 3b=a2+2<a2+2a+1=a+1, so that a>3b−1. Thus we look for solutions of the equation x2−3y2=−2 in positive integers. This equation has infinitely many solutions which may be described as follows: The equation x2−3y2=−2 has a particular solution (1,1). Consider the equation x2−3y2=1. This has infinitely many solutions (un,vn) given by un+3vn=(2+3)n. Let an=un+3vn and bn=un+vn. Then an2−3vn2=−2(un2−3vn2)=−2. For n≥1 we have bn>1.
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