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India — Team Selection Test, 2012

Number theory Difficulty 5.5 AIME, harder Prove it India

Show that there exist infinitely many pairs (a,b)(a, b) of positive integers with the property that a+ba + b divides ab+1ab + 1, a−ba - b divides ab−1ab - 1, b>1b > 1 and a>b3−1a > b\sqrt{3} - 1.

Solution

Observe b2−1=b(a+b)−(ab+1)b^2 - 1 = b(a+b) - (ab+1) and b2−1=b(a−b)−(ab−1)b^2 - 1 = b(a-b) - (ab-1). Hence a+ba+b and a−ba-b both divide b2−1b^2 - 1. Thus lcm(a+b,a−b)\text{lcm}(a+b, a-b) divides b2−1b^2 - 1. Since both are positive, lcm(a+b,a−b)≤b2−1\text{lcm}(a+b, a-b) \le b^2 - 1.
Let d=gcd(a,b)d = \text{gcd}(a, b). Then d∣abd|ab and d∣a+b∣ab+1d|a+b|ab+1. Hence d∣1d|1 showing d=1d=1. If e=gcd(a+b,a−b)e = \text{gcd}(a+b, a-b), then e∣2ae|2a and e∣2be|2b so that e∣gcd(2a,2b)e|\text{gcd}(2a, 2b). But gcd(2a,2b)=2 gcd(a,b)=2\text{gcd}(2a, 2b) = 2\ \text{gcd}(a, b) = 2. Thus e∣2e|2 and hence e≤2e \le 2. Hence
lcm(a+b,a−b)=(a+b)(a−b)gcd(a+b,a−b)≥a2−b22. \text{lcm}(a+b, a-b) = \frac{(a+b)(a-b)}{\text{gcd}(a+b, a-b)} \ge \frac{a^2-b^2}{2}.
It follows that a2−b2≤2(b2−1)a^2 - b^2 \le 2(b^2 - 1) or a2−3b2≤−2a^2 - 3b^2 \le -2.
Suppose aa and bb are positive integers such that a2−3b2=−2a^2 - 3b^2 = -2. Then aa and bb have same parity. For such a pair (a,b)(a, b), we have
ab+1=ab+3b2−a22=(a+b)3b−a2, ab + 1 = ab + \frac{3b^2 - a^2}{2} = (a+b)\frac{3b-a}{2},
ab−1=ab−3b2−a22=(a−b)a+3b2. ab - 1 = ab - \frac{3b^2 - a^2}{2} = (a-b)\frac{a+3b}{2}.
Hence a+ba+b divides ab+1ab+1 and a−ba-b divides ab−1ab-1. We also observe that
3b=a2+2<a2+2a+1=a+1, \sqrt{3}b = \sqrt{a^2 + 2} < \sqrt{a^2 + 2a + 1} = a + 1,
so that a>3b−1a > \sqrt{3}b - 1.
Thus we look for solutions of the equation x2−3y2=−2x^2 - 3y^2 = -2 in positive integers. This equation has infinitely many solutions which may be described as follows:
The equation x2−3y2=−2x^2 - 3y^2 = -2 has a particular solution (1,1)(1, 1). Consider the equation x2−3y2=1x^2 - 3y^2 = 1. This has infinitely many solutions (un,vn)(u_n, v_n) given by
un+3vn=(2+3)n. u_n + \sqrt{3}v_n = (2 + \sqrt{3})^n.
Let an=un+3vna_n = u_n + 3v_n and bn=un+vnb_n = u_n + v_n. Then
an2−3vn2=−2(un2−3vn2)=−2. a_n^2 - 3v_n^2 = -2(u_n^2 - 3v_n^2) = -2.
For n≥1n \ge 1 we have bn>1b_n > 1.

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