The functions f(n)=n2 and f(n)=−n2 both satisfy the following equations: f(f(n)+1)−f(f(n)−1)=4n2 Either show that there is no other function f:Z→Z satisfying the above equation for all n∈Z, or prove that another such function exists.
Solution
There are infinitely many solutions. We first examine some constraints. If f(n)=f(m) for n,m≥0, then 4n2=4m2 and so n=m. Similarly n=m if f(n)=f(m) for n,m≤0. Now let a=f(0) and substitute n=0 in the given functional equation. We obtain f(a+1)=f(a−1), hence a+1 and a−1 must have different signs. This forces f(0)=a=0. Requiring the given functional equation for all n∈N (positive integers) makes sense as a condition on functions f:N→N∖{1}. If we can find such a function f:N→N∖{1}, then we get a solution to our original problem when we extend it to a function defined on Z by letting f(0)=0 and f(−n)=f(n), n∈N. We already know that f must be injective (on N), so one possibility is to take f(n) to be a distinct multiple of 4 for distinct n∈N. Then the given functional equation just gives a sequence of uncoupled restrictions on f. The idea is therefore to pick some simple function g:N→4N and write f(n)=g(n) for most values of n∈N, but instead use the given equation. f(f(m)−1)=f(f(m)+1)−4m2 to define f(n) for some numbers n≡3(mod4). Defining f(n) this way for n=f(m)−1 in terms of f(n+2)=g(n+2) certainly gives a value that is still a multiple of 4. Any monotonic function g that increases quickly enough to ensure that f(f(m)+1)−4m2>f(f(m)) will suffice. For example, fix an integer K>0 and take g(n)=4Kn2, and so, for n>0 we define f(n)=⎩⎨⎧4K(n+2)2−4m2,4Kn2,if n≡3(mod4) and n=f(m)−1for some m∈N,m<n;otherwise. This equation gives f(1)=4K, and also defines f(n), n>1, in terms of f(m) for m∈N, m<n. Thus it assigns exactly one value f(n) to n∈N. Inductively we see that f(n)≥4Kn2 for all n∈N. This inequality implies that f(m)≥4Km2≥4m2 and so, in the exceptional case n=f(m)−1, f(n)=4K(n+2)2−4m2≥4K(n+2)2−n−1>4(n+1)2=f(n+1) and obviously f(n)<4K(n+2)2=f(n+2). Thus f is injective. Because f(m)−1>m for m>0 it is also now clear that f satisfies the given equation.
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