Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / Iranian Mathematical Olympiad /252 of 270

Iranian Mathematical Olympiad

Algebra Difficulty 7.6 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Iran

Find all functions f:R→Af : \mathbb{R} \to A such that

i. x∈f(y)x \in f(y) if and only if y∈f(x)y \in f(x).

ii. ∣x−y∣>2|x - y| > 2 if and only if f(x)∩f(y)=∅f(x) \cap f(y) = \emptyset.

iii. For all real numbers 0≤r≤10 \le r \le 1; f(r)=[r2−1,r2+1]f(r) = [r^2 - 1, r^2 + 1].

Solution

We shall firstly prove following lemmas;

Lemma 1. For any real number rr, the length of the interval f(r)f(r) is at most 2.
Proof. If x,y∈f(r)x, y \in f(r) we have r∈f(x)∩f(y)r \in f(x) \cap f(y) hence we have ∣x−y∣≤2|x - y| \le 2.

Lemma 2. If the interval II has length 2, then there is a real number rr such that f(r)=If(r) = I.
Proof. If I=[x,x+2]I = [x, x+2] then by condition 2 there is r∈f(x)∩f(x+2)r \in f(x) \cap f(x+2) so we have x,x+2∈f(r)x, x+2 \in f(r). But the length of f(r)f(r) is at most 2 hence we have f(r)=[x,x+2]f(r) = [x, x+2], this completes our proof.

Lemma 3. f is an injective function and for any r the length of f(r) is 2.
Proof. Using preceding lemmas it is enough to show that if f(x)⊂f(y)f(x) \subset f(y) then x=yx = y. Assume the contrary, let II be an interval of length 2 such that x∈I,y∉Ix \in I, y \notin I then by lemma 2 there exists rr such that I=f(r)I = f(r). Now we have r∈f(x),r∉f(y)r \in f(x), r \notin f(y) which contradicts f(x)⊂f(y)f(x) \subset f(y).

Define a new function g:R→Rg: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} such that for all rr, g(r)g(r) is the midpoint of f(r)f(r). Since we know the length of f(r)f(r) we can forget about ff and work with gg. We apt to find all bijective functions gg such that:
i.∣x−g(y)∣≤1  ⟺  ∣y−g(x)∣≤1. i. \quad |x - g(y)| \le 1 \iff |y - g(x)| \le 1.
ii.∣g(x)−g(y)∣≤2  ⟺  ∣x−y∣≤2. ii. \quad |g(x) - g(y)| \le 2 \iff |x - y| \le 2.
iii.g(r)=r2 for all 0≤r≤1. iii. \quad g(r) = r^2 \text{ for all } 0 \le r \le 1.

Lemma 4. g is strictly increasing.
Proof. It suffices to prove if x<y,y−x<1x < y, y - x < 1 then g(x)<g(y)g(x) < g(y). We firstly consider the case y=0y = 0. For each −2≤x≤0-2 \le x \le 0 by condition 2 and g(0)=0g(0) = 0 we have
∣g(x)−g(2)∣>2,∣g(x)∣≤2,∣g(2)∣≤2 |g(x) - g(2)| > 2, |g(x)| \le 2, |g(2)| \le 2
so we can deduce that g(x)g(x) and g(2)g(2) have different signs, similarly we can deduce that g(2),g(1)=1g(2), g(1) = 1 have the same sign (they are both opposite to the sign of g(−2)g(-2)). Hence we have g(2)>0,g(x)<0g(2) > 0, g(x) < 0.
We prove by induction on ⌊x⌋\lfloor x \rfloor (We only prove the case that 0≤x<y0 \le x < y the other case is similar). For the base if 0≤x<y<10 \le x < y < 1 then x2<y2x^2 < y^2. We know that y−x−2>2y - x - 2 > 2 hence by the second condition we have
∣g(y)−g(x−2)∣>2,∣g(y)−g(x)∣≤2,∣g(x)−g(x−2)∣≤2. |g(y) - g(x - 2)| > 2, |g(y) - g(x)| \le 2, |g(x) - g(x - 2)| \le 2.
We know by induction that g(x)−g(x−2)>0g(x) - g(x - 2) > 0 hence we have g(y)>g(x)g(y) > g(x).

Lemma 5. *we have g(x+1)=g−1(x)+1g(x + 1) = g^{-1}(x) + 1.*
Proof. We know that gg is bijective so it suffices to prove that g(g(x)+1)=x+1g(g(x) + 1) = x + 1. Assume that g(r)=x+1g(r) = x + 1 then we have r≤g(x)+1r \le g(x) + 1. Now if r′>rr' > r we have g(r′)>x+1g(r') > x + 1 hence by condition 1; r′>g(x)+1r' > g(x) + 1 so we get r=g(x)+1r = g(x) + 1.

By the last lemma we obtain that there is only one function that satisfies the condition of the problem and that function is:
g(x)={(x−⌊x⌋)2+⌊x⌋⌊x⌋≡0(mod2);x−⌊x⌋+⌊x⌋⌊x⌋≡1(mod2). g(x) = \begin{cases} (x - \lfloor x \rfloor)^2 + \lfloor x \rfloor & \lfloor x \rfloor \equiv 0 \pmod{2}; \\ \sqrt{x - \lfloor x \rfloor} + \lfloor x \rfloor & \lfloor x \rfloor \equiv 1 \pmod{2}. \end{cases}
It is easy to check that this function actually works. ■

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,604 problems in a working order, from Junior Challenge level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.