Depending on the positive integer k, determine the smallest real number Dk such that (abc)2+(bcd)2+(cda)2+(dab)2≤Dk for all nonnegative real numbers a,b,c,d such that ak+bk+ck+dk=4.
Solution
The quadruple (a,b,c,d)=(1,1,1,1) satisfies the given condition for every positive integer k, which means that Dk≥4 for every positive integer k. We will prove that Dk=4 for every k≥2. If k≥2, the power mean inequality gives us: 4a2+b2+c2+d2≤k4ak+bk+ck+dk=1, i.e. a2+b2+c2+d2≤4. By introducing the substitution x=a2, y=b2, z=c2, w=d2 the previous inequality turns into x+y+z+w≤4, and the given inequality turns into xyz+xyw+xzw+yzw≤4.(11) Obviously, it is sufficient to prove the inequality: 16(xyz+xyw+xzw+yzw)≤(x+y+z+w)3. We have (x−y+z−w)2≥0, which can be equivalently written as (x+y+z+w)2≥4(xy+yz+zw+wx).(12) We also have (x+y+z+w)(xy+yz+zw+wx)≥4(xyz+xyw+xzw+yzw).(13) Namely, the last inequality is equivalent to (x2+z2)(y+w)+(y2+w2)(x+z)≥2(xyz+xzw+xyw+yzw) which holds by the AM-GM inequality x2+z2≥2xzandy2+w2≥2yw. Multiplying (12) and (13) gives us (11).
If k=1 then Dk>4. Namely, plugging the quadruple (34,34,34,0) gives us D1≥(34)6>4. We will prove that D1 is precisely equal to (34)6.
Let us assume that a,b,c,d are real numbers such that a+b+c+d=1 and a≥b≥c≥d≥0. We denote a′=a,b′=b+2d,c′=c+2d,d′=0. Replacing (a,b,c,d)→(a′,b′,c′,d′) the left hand side of the given inequality increases. Namely, (a′b′c′)2+(a′b′d′)2+(a′c′d′)2+(b′c′d′)2=a2(b+2d)2(c+2d)2=a2(b2+bd+4d2)(c2+cd+4d2)≥a2⋅b2⋅c2+a2⋅b2⋅cd+a2⋅bd⋅c2+a2⋅bd⋅cd≥(abc)2+(abd)2+(acd)2+(bcd)2, where the last inequality holds because of the ordering of numbers a,b,c,d. This means that the left hand side of the inequality attains its maximum when one of the numbers is equal to zero, so without loss of generality we can assume that d=0. Now it follows that: (abc)2+(abd)2+(acd)2+(bcd)2=(abc)2≤A-G(3a+b+c)6=(34)6, which means that D1=(34)6.
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