Maths Olympiad Prep

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Combinatorics Difficulty 6.8 National Olympiad Prove it Singapore

Starting with any nn-tuple R0R_0, n>1n > 1, of symbols from AA, BB, CC, we define a sequence R0,R1,R2,R_0, R_1, R_2, \dots, according to the following rule: If Rj=(x1,x2,,xn)R_j = (x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n), then Rj+1=(y1,y2,,yn)R_{j+1} = (y_1, y_2, \dots, y_n), where yi=xiy_i = x_i if xi=xi+1x_i = x_{i+1} (taking xn+1=x1x_{n+1} = x_1) and yiy_i is the symbol other than xi,xi+1x_i, x_{i+1} if xixi+1x_i \neq x_{i+1}. Find all positive integers n>1n > 1 for which there exists some integer m>0m > 0 such that Rm=R0R_m = R_0.

Solution

Replace AA, BB, CC by 00, 11, 22. Then yixixi+1(mod3)y_i \equiv -x_i - x_{i+1} \pmod{3}. We first show that such an mm does not exist for even nn as seen from the following nn-tuple
(1,0,1,0,,1,0). (1, 0, 1, 0, \dots, 1, 0).
Next we show that mm exists when nn is odd. Since the total number of tuples that can be formed is 3n3^n, there exist indices s<ts < t such that Rs=RtR_s = R_t. Without loss of generality, we may assume that RsR_s is the only term in the sequence from R0R_0 to RtR_t that is the same as RtR_t. If we can show that for any i0i \ge 0, RiR_i can be obtained from Ri+1R_{i+1}, then the sequence going backwards from RsR_s is the same as the sequence going backwards from RtR_t. Since going backwards from RsR_s, we can get R0R_0, then going backwards from RtR_t, before reaching RsR_s, we can get an nn-tuple which is the same as R0R_0. In other words, there is an index mm, s<m<ts < m < t, such that R0=RmR_0 = R_m and we are done.
To show that the sequence can be reversed, all we need to show is if two nn-tuples (a1,a2,,an)(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) and (b1,b2,,bn)(b_1, b_2, \dots, b_n) give rise to the same nn-tuple, then they are in fact the same. We have from the given rule:
-a 1 - a 2 = -b 1 - b 2 a 2 + a 3 = b 2 + b 3 -a n-2 - a n-1 = -b n-2 - b n-1 a n-1 + a n = b n-1 + b n -a n - a 1 = -b n - b 1\text{-a 1 - a 2 = -b 1 - b 2 a 2 + a 3 = b 2 + b 3 -a n-2 - a n-1 = -b n-2 - b n-1 a n-1 + a n = b n-1 + b n -a n - a 1 = -b n - b 1}
Summing up, we get 2a1=2b12a_1 = 2b_1 and therefore a1=b1a_1 = b_1. Repeat this starting with the index pair (2,3)(2, 3), we can show that a2=b2a_2 = b_2. Continuing this way, we have (a1,,an)=(b1,,bn)(a_1, \dots, a_n) = (b_1, \dots, b_n):

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.