A (n+1)-tuple (h1,h2,…,hn+1) where for every 1≤i≤n+1, hi(x1,x2,…,xn) is an n-variable polynomial with real coefficients is called good if the following condition holds. For any n functions f1,f2,…,fn:R→R, if for all 1≤i≤n+1, Pi(x)=hi(f1(x),f2(x),…,fn(x)) is a polynomial in variable x, then f1(x),f2(x),…,fn(x) are polynomials.
a) Prove that for all positive integers n, there exists a good(n+1)-tuple (h1,h2,…,hn+1) such that the degree of each hi is more than one.
b) Prove that there does not exist any integer n>1 for which there is a good(n+1)-tuple (h1,h2,…,hn+1) such that all hi are symmetric polynomials.
Solution
a) We set an example using induction on n. For n=1, consider the following pair of polynomials of degree 2 h1(x)=x2+x,h2(x)=−x2. Now for any function f:R→R, if P1(x)=h1(f(x)) and P2(x)=h2(f(x)) are polynomials, then P1(x)+P2(x)=f(x) is a polynomial.
Now assume that (h1,h2,…,hn+1) is a good(n+1)-tuple of n-variable polynomials. Define the following (n+2)-tuple (g1,g2,…,gn+2) of polynomials with n+1 variables as {gi(x1,x2,…,xn+1)=hi(x1,x2,…,xn),gn+2(x1,x2,…,xn+1)=x12+xn+1,1≤i≤n+1,i=n+2. Now let f1,f2,…,fn+1:R→R be some functions such that for all 1≤i≤n+2 Pi(x1,…,xn+1)=gi(f1,f2,…,fn+1), is a polynomial. By induction hypothesis we obtain that f1(x),f2(x),…,fn(x) are polynomials. Note that f1(x)2 is a polynomial. Therefore, fn+1=Pn+2−f12 is also a polynomial. The degree of all gi's are more than 1. Therefore the given example is a good(n+2)-tuple.
b) According to the Fundamental Theorem of Symmetric Polynomials, for any symmetric polynomial hi(x1,…,xn) there exists another polynomial gi(x1,…,xn) such that hi(x1,…,xn)=gi(sym∑xi,sym∑xixj,…,x1x2⋯xn). Now assume that for some n>1 there exists a good(n+1)-tuple of symmetric polynomials. Consider the following functions f1(x)=∣x∣,f2(x)=−∣x∣,f3(x)=f4(x)=⋯=fn+1(x)=0. Note that ⎩⎨⎧∑symfifj=−x2,∑symfi1fi2⋯fik=0,∀k=2. Therefore, Pi(x)=hi(f1(x),…,fn(x))=gi(0,−x2,0,…,0)=Hi(−x2). Where Hi is a polynomial with real coefficients. So for any i, Pi(x) is a polynomial, and therefore all fi's are polynomials, too. But f1 and f2 are not polynomials. Contradiction, hence the claim. ■
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