Prove the following statement: if z is a complex number such that Re(z+iz−i)=0, then ∣z∣=1. (Ilko Brnetić)
Solution
Let z=x+iy, where x,y∈R.
We have: z+iz−i=(x+iy)+i(x+iy)−i=x+i(y+1)x+i(y−1)
Multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator: x+i(y+1)x+i(y−1)⋅x−i(y+1)x−i(y+1)=(x+i(y+1))(x−i(y+1))(x+i(y−1))(x−i(y+1))
Compute the denominator: (x+i(y+1))(x−i(y+1))=x2−ix(y+1)+ix(y+1)−i2(y+1)2=x2+(y+1)2
Compute the numerator: (x+i(y−1))(x−i(y+1))=x(x)+x(−i(y+1))+i(y−1)x+i(y−1)(−i(y+1))=x2−ix(y+1)+ix(y−1)−i2(y−1)(y+1)=x2−ix(y+1)+ix(y−1)+(y2−1)(since i2=−1)=x2+(y2−1)−ix(y+1)+ix(y−1)=x2+y2−1−ix(y+1−y+1)=x2+y2−1−ix(2)
So, z+iz−i=x2+(y+1)2x2+y2−1−2ix
The real part is: Re(z+iz−i)=x2+(y+1)2x2+y2−1
We are given that this is 0, so: x2+(y+1)2x2+y2−1=0⟹x2+y2−1=0⟹x2+y2=1
But ∣z∣=x2+y2=1.
Therefore, ∣z∣=1.
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Source: MathNet,
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