Number theoryDifficulty 5.4AIME, harderProve itSpain
Let p be a prime number and let m and n be positive integers written in base p as n=a0+a1p+⋯+akpk and m=b0+b1p+⋯+bkpk, respectively. Show that (mn)≡i=0∏k(biai)(modp)
Solution
Since (mn)=0 for n<m then hereafter we assume that n≥m. Next we use the well-known and easily proved fact that (x+1)p≡xp+1(modp), meaning that each coefficient of the polynomial (x+1)p−(xp+1) is divisible by p. Thus, (x+1)n=(x+1)a0+a1p+⋯+akpk≡i=0∏k(xpi+1)ai(modp)≡i=0∏k(j=0∑ai(jai)xjpi)(modp) The coefficient of xm in the LHS is (x+1)n[xm]=(mn) and the coefficient of xm in the RHS is the coefficient of the following monomial (b0a0)xb0(b1a1)xb1p⋯(bkak)xbkpk=xb0+b1p+⋯+bkpki=0∏k(biai) Equating both coefficients, yields (mn)≡i=0∏k(biai)(modp)
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