Number theoryDifficulty 6.4National OlympiadProve itIran
k, n are two arbitrary positive integers. Prove that there exists at least (k−1)(n−k+1) positive integers that can be produced by n number of k's and using only +, −, ×, ÷ operations and adding parentheses between them, but cannot be produced using n−1 number of k's.
Solution
Consider numbers of the form km(ki+j) for i∈{1,…,n−k+1}, j∈{1,…,k−1} and m≥0. Note that for such i and j in these intervals, we have i+j≤n. Based on n−(i+j) is an odd number or an even number, we have two cases.
* If n−(i+j) is odd, there is some integer t≥0 such that n−(i+j)=2t+1. In this case, the number ki+j can be represented using n number of k's as ki+j=i+t(k×⋯×k)÷t(k×⋯×k)+j(k+⋯+k)÷k.
* If n−(i+j) is even, there is some integer t≥0 such that n−(i+j)=2t. In this case, the number k(ki+j) can be shown using n number of k's as k(ki+j)=k×i+t−1((k×⋯×k))÷t−1(k×⋯×k)+j(k+⋯+k)÷k. (In case when t=0, we have t−1=−1, so in the above equation, instead of multiplying the parentheses to −1k's, we divide it by one k.)
So in both cases, there is m≥0 such that km(ki+j) can be represented using n number of k's. Set m to be the largest number such that km(ki+j) can be represented using only n number of k's (for fixed i and j). There are a total of (n−k+1)(k−1) numbers created with given properties. We prove that they are all distinct numbers and also cannot be represented using n−1 number of k's.
If some number u=km(ki+j) can be shown using n−1 number of k's, then clearly k×u=km+1(ki+j) has a representation, using n number of k's, therefore m cannot be the largest number such that km(ki+j) has a representation using n number of k's, so we conclude that it is impossible to reach these numbers with only n−1 number of k's.
Finally, if for two such triples (i1,j1,m1)=(i2,j2,m2) with m1≥m2, we have km1(ki1+j1)=km2(ki2+j2), then km1−m2(ki1+j1)=ki2+j2.
But if m1−m2>0, the above equation implies k∣j2, which is impossible because j2<k. Therefore m1=m2 and so ki1+j1=ki2+j2. Without loss of generality, we assume i1≥i2. So ki2(ki1−i2−1)=j2−j1. Again, if i1>i2, we get k∣j2−j1. Note that j1,j2∈{1,…,k−1}, therefore −k<∣j1−j2∣<k, so we must have j1−j2=0 and thus ki1=ki2 which means i1=i2, that is impossible in this case because we assumed that i1>i2. The only possible case is when i1=i2 which leads to j1=j2. Therefore (i1,j1,m1)=(i2,j2,m2), contradiction. So indeed, all of the created numbers are distinct and hence the claim of the problem. ■
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