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National Math Olympiad in Slovenia

Algebra Difficulty 4.9 AIME Prove it Slovenia

Does the equation cos⁡(sin⁡x)=sin⁡(cos⁡x)\cos(\sin x) = \sin(\cos x) have at least one real solution?

Solution

Rewrite the equation as cos⁡(sin⁡x)=cos⁡(π2−cos⁡x)\cos(\sin x) = \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - \cos x\right). This implies that π2−cos⁡x=±sin⁡x+2kπ\frac{\pi}{2} - \cos x = \pm \sin x + 2k\pi for some k∈Zk \in \mathbb{Z}, so cos⁡x±sin⁡x=π2−2kπ\cos x \pm \sin x = \frac{\pi}{2} - 2k\pi. Since ∣cos⁡x±sin⁡x∣≤∣cos⁡x∣+∣sin⁡x∣≤2|\cos x \pm \sin x| \le |\cos x| + |\sin x| \le 2, we have k=0k=0, and so cos⁡x±sin⁡x=π2\cos x \pm \sin x = \frac{\pi}{2}. Squaring both sides of the equation we get cos⁡2x±2cos⁡xsin⁡x+sin⁡2x=π24\cos^2 x \pm 2\cos x\sin x + \sin^2 x = \frac{\pi^2}{4} or ±sin⁡2x=π24−1\pm \sin 2x = \frac{\pi^2}{4} - 1. Since π24−1>94−1>1\frac{\pi^2}{4} - 1 > \frac{9}{4} - 1 > 1, this equation has no real solutions, so the initial equation does not have any real solutions either.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.