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Algebra Difficulty 6.3 National olympiad Prove it Czech Republic

Consider a sequence (an)n=1(a_n)_{n=1}^{\infty} of positive integers satisfying for each n3n \ge 3 the condition
an=a1a2+a2a3++an2an11. a_n = a_1a_2 + a_2a_3 + \dots + a_{n-2}a_{n-1} - 1.
a) Prove that some prime number is a divisor of infinitely many terms of this sequence.
(Tomáš Bárta)
b) Prove that there are infinitely many such prime numbers.

Solution

Since all terms aia_i are positive integers, we have
a5=a1a2+a2a3+a3a411+1+11=2, and therefore a51. a_5 = a_1a_2 + a_2a_3 + a_3a_4 - 1 \ge 1 + 1 + 1 - 1 = 2, \text{ and therefore } a_5 \ne 1.
The number a5a_5 is thus divisible by at least one prime number.
For every n4n \ge 4, the following holds
an=(a1a2+a2a3++an3an2)+an2an11==(an1+1)+an2an11==an1(an2+1), \begin{align*} a_n &= (a_1a_2 + a_2a_3 + \dots + a_{n-3}a_{n-2}) + a_{n-2}a_{n-1} - 1 = \\ &= (a_{n-1} + 1) + a_{n-2}a_{n-1} - 1 = \\ &= a_{n-1}(a_{n-2} + 1), \end{align*}
and therefore an1ana_{n-1} \mid a_n. Let pp be any prime divisor of a5a_5, then the relation an1ana_{n-1} \mid a_n implies pa6p \mid a_6, from where pa7p \mid a_7, and so on. By mathematical induction we get panp \mid a_n for every n5n \ge 5. Thus, the prime pp divides infinitely many terms of the given sequence. This completes the proof of part a).

Let P\mathcal{P} denote the set of all primes that divide infinitely many terms of the sequence. Suppose that the set P\mathcal{P} is finite, i.e. P={p1,,pk}\mathcal{P} = \{p_1, \dots, p_k\} for a suitable kk. Obviously, for every i{1,2,,k}i \in \{1, 2, \dots, k\} we find such a term ania_{n_i} that is divisible by pip_i and ni5n_i \ge 5. Due to the relation an1ana_{n-1} \mid a_n (proved earlier for each n4n \ge 4) we have pianp_i \mid a_n for all nnin \ge n_i. If we now denote N=max(n1,,nk)N = \max(n_1, \dots, n_k), then aNa_N is divisible by all primes p1,,pkp_1, \dots, p_k. Therefore, aN+1>1a_N+1 > 1 is not divisible by any primes from P\mathcal{P}, so there must be a prime qPq \notin \mathcal{P} satisfying qaN+1q \mid a_N + 1. This prime qq is then also a divisor of the number aN+2=aN+1(aN+1)a_{N+2} = a_{N+1}(a_N + 1), so qanq \mid a_n holds for each nN+2n \ge N+2, and therefore qPq \in \mathcal{P}. Thus, we get a contradiction, that proves the statement in part b).

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