Problem: Let n be an integer greater than 1, and let a0,a1,…,an be real numbers with a1=an−1=0. Prove that for any real number k,
∣a0∣−∣an∣≤i=0∑n−2∣ai−kai+1−ai+2∣
Solution
Solution: Let Q(x)=x2−kx−1 and let P(x)=a0+a1x+⋯+anxn. Note that the product of the two roots of Q(x) is −1 and thus one of the two roots has magnitude at most 1. Let z be this root. Now note that since a1=an−1=0, we have that 0=Q(z)P(z)=−a0−ka0z+i=0∑n−2(ai−kai+1−ai+2)zi+2−kanzn+1+anzn+2=a0(−1−kz)+i=0∑n−2(ai−kai+1−ai+2)zi+2+anzn(z2−kz)=−a0z2+i=0∑n−2(ai−kai+1−ai+2)zi+2+anzn where the third equality follows since z2−kz−1=0. The triangle inequality now implies ∣a0∣⋅∣z∣2≤∣an∣⋅∣z∣n+i=0∑n−2∣ai−kai+1−ai+2∣⋅∣z∣i+2≤∣an∣⋅∣z∣2+i=0∑n−2∣ai−kai+1−ai+2∣⋅∣z∣2 since ∣z∣≤1 and n≥2. Since z=0, the inequality is obtained on dividing by ∣z∣2.
Solution 2: Let k be a real number. Put R={k2+4−k2+4 if k≥0 if k<0 Define the polynomial S(x)=x2+Rx+1 The roots of S are b=2−R−k and c=2−R+k Then we have b−c=−k,bc=1, and ∣c∣≤1 (the inequality follows from bc=1 and ∣c∣≤∣b∣). Put di=ai+bai+1 for i=0,1,…,n−1. Then, for i=0,1,…,n−2, we have di−cdi+1=ai+(b−c)ai+1−bcai+2=ai−kai+1−ai+2 Therefore i=0∑n−2∣ai−kai+1−ai+2∣=i=0∑n−2∣di−cdi+1∣≥i=0∑n−2(∣di∣−∣c∣∣di+1∣)=∣d0∣+(1−∣c∣)i=1∑n−2∣di∣−∣c∣∣dn−1∣≥∣d0∣−∣c∣∣dn−1∣=∣a0+ba1∣−∣c∣∣an−1+ban∣=∣a0∣−∣bc∣∣an∣=∣a0∣−∣an∣
Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track
puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.
Source: MathNet,
licensed CC-BY-4.0.
Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.