Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2022

Algebra Difficulty 5.5 AIME, harder Prove it United States

Problem:
Suppose n3n \geq 3 is a positive integer. Let a1<a2<<ana_{1}<a_{2}<\cdots<a_{n} be an increasing sequence of positive real numbers, and let an+1=a1a_{n+1}=a_{1}. Prove that
k=1nakak+1>k=1nak+1ak. \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{a_{k}}{a_{k+1}} > \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{a_{k+1}}{a_{k}}.

Solutions — 3

Solution 1

Solution:
We will use induction. The base case is n=3n=3. In this case, we want to show that
a1a2+a2a3+a3a1>a2a1+a3a2+a1a3. \frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}+\frac{a_{2}}{a_{3}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{1}}>\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{2}}+\frac{a_{1}}{a_{3}}.
Equivalently, we want to show
a12a3+a22a1+a32a2>a12a2+a22a3+a32a1a12(a3a2)+a32(a2a1)>a22(a3a1)(a32a22)(a2a1)>(a22a12)(a3a2)a3+a2>a2+a1, \begin{aligned} a_{1}^{2} a_{3}+a_{2}^{2} a_{1}+a_{3}^{2} a_{2}>a_{1}^{2} a_{2}+a_{2}^{2} a_{3}+a_{3}^{2} a_{1} & \Longleftrightarrow a_{1}^{2}\left(a_{3}-a_{2}\right)+a_{3}^{2}\left(a_{2}-a_{1}\right)>a_{2}^{2}\left(a_{3}-a_{1}\right) \\ & \Longleftrightarrow\left(a_{3}^{2}-a_{2}^{2}\right)\left(a_{2}-a_{1}\right)>\left(a_{2}^{2}-a_{1}^{2}\right)\left(a_{3}-a_{2}\right) \\ & \Longleftrightarrow a_{3}+a_{2}>a_{2}+a_{1}, \end{aligned}
which is true.

Now assume the claim is true for n3n \geq 3. Then, we have that
a1a3+a3a4++anan+1+an+1a1>a3a1+a4a3++an+1an+a1an+1. \frac{a_{1}}{a_{3}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{4}}+\cdots+\frac{a_{n}}{a_{n+1}}+\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{1}}>\frac{a_{3}}{a_{1}}+\frac{a_{4}}{a_{3}}+\cdots+\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}}+\frac{a_{1}}{a_{n+1}}.
We also have that
a1a2+a2a3+a3a1>a2a1+a3a2+a3a1. \frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}+\frac{a_{2}}{a_{3}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{1}}>\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{2}}+\frac{a_{3}}{a_{1}}.
Adding the two inequalities and simplifying gives the desired result.

Solution 2

Solution:
The points (a1,1a1),(a2,1a2),(a3,1a3),,(an,1an)\left(a_{1}, \frac{1}{a_{1}}\right),\left(a_{2}, \frac{1}{a_{2}}\right),\left(a_{3}, \frac{1}{a_{3}}\right), \ldots,\left(a_{n}, \frac{1}{a_{n}}\right) form a counter-clockwise oriented polygon. Thus, we have the area, AA, which must be positive, can be calculated by Shoelace theorem:
A=12(k=1nakak+1k=1nak+1ak). A=\frac{1}{2}\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{a_{k}}{a_{k+1}}-\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{a_{k+1}}{a_{k}}\right).
Since AA is positive, we are done.

Solution 3

Solution:
For 1in11 \leq i \leq n-1, let ri=ai+1/air_{i}=a_{i+1} / a_{i}. Then the inequality becomes
r1r2rn1+1r1++1rn1>1r1r2rn1+r1++rn1. r_{1} r_{2} \cdots r_{n-1}+\frac{1}{r_{1}}+\cdots+\frac{1}{r_{n-1}}>\frac{1}{r_{1} r_{2} \cdots r_{n-1}}+r_{1}+\cdots+r_{n-1}.
If we let si=logris_{i}=\log r_{i} and f(s)=esesf(s)=e^{s}-e^{-s}, this is the same as
f(s1++sn1)>f(s1)++f(sn1) f\left(s_{1}+\cdots+s_{n-1}\right)>f\left(s_{1}\right)+\cdots+f\left(s_{n-1}\right)
This follows from the convexity of ff and the fact that f(0)=0f(0)=0.

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