Maths Olympiad Prep

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Singapur, 2015

Number theory Difficulty 4.7 AIME Prove it Singapore

Let n≥3n \ge 3 be an integer. Prove that there exist positive integers ≥2\ge 2, a1,a2,…,ana_1, a_2, \dots, a_n, such that a1a2⋯a^i⋯an≡1(modai)a_1 a_2 \cdots \hat{a}_i \cdots a_n \equiv 1 \pmod{a_i}, for i=1,…,ni = 1, \dots, n. Here a^i\hat{a}_i means the term aia_i is omitted.

Solution

Let a1=2a_1 = 2, a2=3a_2 = 3. For i=3,…,n−1i = 3, \dots, n-1, let ai=a1a2⋯ai−1+1a_i = a_1 a_2 \cdots a_{i-1} + 1. Let an=a1a2⋯an−1−1a_n = a_1 a_2 \cdots a_{n-1} - 1. Clearly, a1a2⋯an−1≡1(modan)a_1 a_2 \cdots a_{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{a_n}. Also ai+1≡ai+2≡⋯≡an−1≡1(modai)a_{i+1} \equiv a_{i+2} \equiv \cdots \equiv a_{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{a_i}. For i=1,…,n−1i = 1, \dots, n-1, we have
a1a2⋯a^i⋯an=(a1⋯ai−1)(ai+1⋯an−1)an≡(−1)(−1)(−1)≡1(modai). a_1 a_2 \cdots \hat{a}_i \cdots a_n = (a_1 \cdots a_{i-1})(a_{i+1} \cdots a_{n-1})a_n \equiv (-1)(-1)(-1) \equiv 1 \pmod{a_i}.

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