Let n≥3 be an integer. Prove that there exist positive integers ≥2, a1,a2,…,an, such that a1a2⋯a^i⋯an≡1(modai), for i=1,…,n. Here a^i means the term ai is omitted.
Solution
Let a1=2, a2=3. For i=3,…,n−1, let ai=a1a2⋯ai−1+1. Let an=a1a2⋯an−1−1. Clearly, a1a2⋯an−1≡1(modan). Also ai+1≡ai+2≡⋯≡an−1≡1(modai). For i=1,…,n−1, we have a1a2⋯a^i⋯an=(a1⋯ai−1)(ai+1⋯an−1)an≡(−1)(−1)(−1)≡1(modai).
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