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Serbian Mathematical Olympiad

Algebra Difficulty 7.3 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Serbia

Problem:

Let a0a_{0} and ana_{n} be distinct divisors of a natural number m>1m>1, and let a0,a1,a2,…,ana_{0}, a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{n} be a sequence of natural numbers satisfying
ai+1=∣ai±ai−1∣ for 0<i<n a_{i+1}=\left|a_{i} \pm a_{i-1}\right| \quad \text{ for } 0<i<n
If gcd⁡(a0,…,an)=1\gcd\left(a_{0}, \ldots, a_{n}\right)=1, prove that there exists a term in the sequence which is smaller than m\sqrt{m}.

Solution

Solution:

Let us consider the two smallest (distinct) terms of the sequence, pp and qq. If min⁡{p,q}=1\min \{p, q\}= 1, the claim trivially holds; hence from now on we assume p,q>1p, q>1.

Lemma 1. There exist indices kk and ll such that ak=p,al=qa_{k}=p, a_{l}=q and ∣k−l∣≤2|k-l| \leq 2.

Proof. Let ak=pa_{k}=p and al=qa_{l}=q (k<lk<l). Suppose that r=l−k>2r=l-k>2. We shall prove by induction on rr that for some ii, k<i<lk<i<l, we have ai∈{p,q}a_{i} \in\{p, q\}. Since ak+3≠∣ak+2−ak+1∣=pa_{k+3} \neq\left|a_{k+2}-a_{k+1}\right|=p, we have ak+3=ak+1+ak+2a_{k+3}=a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}; similarly al−3=al−2+al−1a_{l-3}=a_{l-2}+a_{l-1}. Let am=max⁡p<i<qaia_{m}=\max _{p<i<q} a_{i}. It is clear that k+2<m<l−2k+2<m<l-2 (hence l−k⩾6l-k \geqslant 6), and also am+2=am−am+1=am−1a_{m+2}=a_{m}-a_{m+1}=a_{m-1} and am+1=am−am−1=am−2a_{m+1}=a_{m}-a_{m-1}=a_{m-2}. This means that the sequence (ai′)\left(a_{i}^{\prime}\right), defined by ai′=aia_{i}^{\prime}=a_{i} for i<mi<m and ai′=ai+3a_{i}^{\prime}=a_{i+3} for i⩾mi \geqslant m, satisfies the conditions of the problem; moreover ak′=pa_{k}^{\prime}=p and al−3′=qa_{l-3}^{\prime}=q, so by the inductive hypothesis (since (l−3)−k⩾3(l-3)-k \geqslant 3) we have ai′∈{p,q}a_{i}^{\prime} \in\{p, q\} for some ii (k<i<l−3k<i<l-3). Then also ai∈{p,q}a_{i} \in\{p, q\} or ai+3∈{p,q}a_{i+3} \in\{p, q\}, which completes the induction.

Lemma 2. For every ii (0⩽i⩽n0 \leqslant i \leqslant n) there exist xi,yi∈N0x_{i}, y_{i} \in \mathbb{N}_{0} such that ai=xip+yiqa_{i}=x_{i} p+y_{i} q and (xi,yi)=1\left(x_{i}, y_{i}\right)=1.

Proof. Let us consider the vectors vk=(1,0)v_{k}=(1,0) and vl=(0,1)v_{l}=(0,1) and, for every ii, define vi+2=εivi+εi′vi+1v_{i+2}=\varepsilon_{i} v_{i}+\varepsilon_{i}^{\prime} v_{i+1} if ai+2=εiai+εi′ai+1a_{i+2}=\varepsilon_{i} a_{i}+\varepsilon_{i}^{\prime} a_{i+1} (εi,εi′∈{−1,1}\varepsilon_{i}, \varepsilon_{i}^{\prime} \in\{-1,1\}). By a simple induction we get that for vi=(xi,yi)v_{i}=(x_{i}, y_{i}) we have
ai=xip+yiq a_{i}=x_{i} p+y_{i} q
Since xi+1yi+2−xi+2yi+1=xi+1(εiyi+εi′yi+1)−(εixi+εi′xi+1)yi+1=−εi(xiyi+1−xi+1yi)x_{i+1} y_{i+2}-x_{i+2} y_{i+1}=x_{i+1}\left(\varepsilon_{i} y_{i}+\varepsilon_{i}^{\prime} y_{i+1}\right)-\left(\varepsilon_{i} x_{i}+\varepsilon_{i}^{\prime} x_{i+1}\right) y_{i+1}=-\varepsilon_{i}\left(x_{i} y_{i+1}-x_{i+1} y_{i}\right) and similarly xiyi+2−xi+2yi=εi′(xiyi+1−xi+1yi)x_{i} y_{i+2}-x_{i+2} y_{i}=\varepsilon_{i}^{\prime}\left(x_{i} y_{i+1}-x_{i+1} y_{i}\right), we have
xiyi+1−xi+1yi,xiyi+2−xi+2yi∈{−1,1} for 0⩽i<n x_{i} y_{i+1}-x_{i+1} y_{i}, x_{i} y_{i+2}-x_{i+2} y_{i} \in\{-1,1\} \text{ for } 0 \leqslant i<n
and from this (xi,yi)=1\left(x_{i}, y_{i}\right)=1. It remains to show that xi,yi⩾0x_{i}, y_{i} \geqslant 0 for all ii.

Suppose that xi<0x_{i}<0 for some i<ki<k (the case yi<0y_{i}<0 and/or i>li>l is analogous) and consider the largest such ii. Since ai>0a_{i}>0 and (1), we have yi>0y_{i}>0. From (2) and xiyi+1,xiyi+2⩽0⩽xi+1yi,xi+2yix_{i} y_{i+1}, x_{i} y_{i+2} \leqslant 0 \leqslant x_{i+1} y_{i}, x_{i+2} y_{i} it follows that vi+1v_{i+1}, vi+2∈{(0,1),(1,0)}v_{i+2} \in\{(0,1),(1,0)\}, and then it must be that vi=±(1,−1)v_{i}= \pm(1,-1), i.e. ai=∣p−q∣a_{i}=|p-q|. However, since pp and qq are coprime and greater than 1, we have max⁡{p,q}>∣p−q∣∉{p,q}\max \{p, q\}>|p-q| \notin\{p, q\}, contrary to the choice of pp and qq.

Let m=da0=eanm=d a_{0}=e a_{n}. By Lemma 2 we have m=dx0p+dy0q=exnp+eynqm=d x_{0} p+d y_{0} q=e x_{n} p+e y_{n} q, where (dx0,dy0)≠(exn,eyn)\left(d x_{0}, d y_{0}\right) \neq\left(e x_{n}, e y_{n}\right) since because of a0≠ana_{0} \neq a_{n} we have x0y0≠xnyn\frac{x_{0}}{y_{0}} \neq \frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}. From this it follows that p∣dy0−eynp \mid d y_{0}-e y_{n}, so dy0>pd y_{0}>p or eyn>pe y_{n}>p; finally, m>pqm>p q and therefore min⁡(p,q)<m\min (p, q)<\sqrt{m}.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement translated into English from sr; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.