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UkraineMO

Algebra Difficulty 4.9 AIME Prove it Ukraine

Does there a function f:R→Rf: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} exist, that for any real numbers xx, yy the following inequality is fulfilled:
f(x−f(y))≤x−yf(x)? f(x - f(y)) \le x - y f(x)?

Solution

Answer: it doesn't exist.

Let us assume such function exists. Let us substitute y=0y = 0 in the given inequality:
f(x−f(0))≤x, f(x - f(0)) \le x,
Then, substitute x=x+f(0)x = x + f(0) there:
f(x)≤x+f(0).(1) f(x) \le x + f(0). \quad (1)
Let us substitute x=f(y)x = f(y) in the initial inequality. We will get:
{f(0)≤f(y)−yf(f(y))≤y+f(0)−yf(f(y)) oryf(f(y))≤y. \begin{cases} f(0) \le f(y) - y f(f(y)) \le y + f(0) - y f(f(y)) \text{ or} \\ y f(f(y)) \le y. \end{cases}
From the last inequality while y<0y < 0 we will have:
1≤f(f(y))≤f(y)+f(0)≤y+2f(0).(1) 1 \le f(f(y)) \le f(y) + f(0) \le y + 2f(0). \quad (1)
The last inequality has to be satisfied for any y<0y < 0, that is surely impossible.

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