Does there a function f:R→R exist, that for any real numbers x, y the following inequality is fulfilled: f(x−f(y))≤x−yf(x)?
Solution
Answer: it doesn't exist.
Let us assume such function exists. Let us substitute y=0 in the given inequality: f(x−f(0))≤x, Then, substitute x=x+f(0) there: f(x)≤x+f(0).(1) Let us substitute x=f(y) in the initial inequality. We will get: {f(0)≤f(y)−yf(f(y))≤y+f(0)−yf(f(y)) oryf(f(y))≤y. From the last inequality while y<0 we will have: 1≤f(f(y))≤f(y)+f(0)≤y+2f(0).(1) The last inequality has to be satisfied for any y<0, that is surely impossible.
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Source: MathNet,
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