Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 1997

Algebra Difficulty 7.7 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Hong Kong

Let a sequence of real numbers a0,a1,a2,a_0, a_1, a_2, \dots satisfies the condition
n=0man(1)n(mn)=0 \sum_{n=0}^{m} a_n \cdot (-1)^n \cdot \binom{m}{n} = 0
for all sufficiently large values of mm. Show that there exists a polynomial PP such that an=P(n)a_n = P(n) for all n0n \ge 0.

Solution

For any function f(x)f(x) and any integer m0m \ge 0, define
Δmf(x)=n=0mf(x+n)(1)n(mn). \Delta_m f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{m} f(x+n) (-1)^n \binom{m}{n}.
Claim. Let Q(x)Q(x) be a polynomial of degree dd. Then ΔmQ(x)=0\Delta_m Q(x) = 0 for all mdm \ge d.
Proof. This is a standard result about finite differences of polynomials. Indeed, let Q0(x)=Q(x)Q_0(x) = Q(x) and Qk+1(x)=Qk(x)Qk(x+1)Q_{k+1}(x) = Q_k(x) - Q_k(x+1) for k0k \ge 0. It is easy to show that Qk(x)=ΔkQ(x)Q_k(x) = \Delta_k Q(x) for any kk. Also, it can be proved by induction that Qk(x)Q_k(x) is a polynomial of degree dkd-k for k=0,1,,dk=0, 1, \dots, d (essentially because xj(x+1)jx^j - (x+1)^j has degree j1j-1), and hence Qk(x)=0Q_k(x) = 0 for all kdk \ge d. This proves the claim. \square

Consider any function f(x)f(x) such that f(n)=anf(n) = a_n for all integer n0n \ge 0. We are given that Δmf(0)=0\Delta_m f(0) = 0 for all mNm \ge N where NZ+N \in \mathbb{Z}^+. By the Lagrange interpolation formula, construct a polynomial PP of degree at most N1N-1 such that P(n)=f(n)P(n) = f(n) for n=0,1,,N1n = 0, 1, \dots, N-1. By the claim, we have ΔNP(0)=0\Delta_N P(0) = 0. Also, we know that ΔNf(0)=0\Delta_N f(0) = 0. Equating these, we find that
n=0NP(n)(1)n(Nn)=n=0Nf(n)(1)n(Nn). \sum_{n=0}^{N} P(n) (-1)^n \binom{N}{n} = \sum_{n=0}^{N} f(n) (-1)^n \binom{N}{n}.
Since P(n)=f(n)P(n) = f(n) for n=0,1,,N1n = 0, 1, \dots, N-1, this yields P(N)=f(N)P(N) = f(N). Inductively, we obtain P(n)=f(n)=anP(n) = f(n) = a_n for all nonnegative integer nn. This completes the proof.

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