For any function f(x) and any integer m≥0, define
Δmf(x)=n=0∑mf(x+n)(−1)n(nm).
Claim. Let Q(x) be a polynomial of degree d. Then ΔmQ(x)=0 for all m≥d.
Proof. This is a standard result about finite differences of polynomials. Indeed, let Q0(x)=Q(x) and Qk+1(x)=Qk(x)−Qk(x+1) for k≥0. It is easy to show that Qk(x)=ΔkQ(x) for any k. Also, it can be proved by induction that Qk(x) is a polynomial of degree d−k for k=0,1,…,d (essentially because xj−(x+1)j has degree j−1), and hence Qk(x)=0 for all k≥d. This proves the claim. □
Consider any function f(x) such that f(n)=an for all integer n≥0. We are given that Δmf(0)=0 for all m≥N where N∈Z+. By the Lagrange interpolation formula, construct a polynomial P of degree at most N−1 such that P(n)=f(n) for n=0,1,…,N−1. By the claim, we have ΔNP(0)=0. Also, we know that ΔNf(0)=0. Equating these, we find that
n=0∑NP(n)(−1)n(nN)=n=0∑Nf(n)(−1)n(nN).
Since P(n)=f(n) for n=0,1,…,N−1, this yields P(N)=f(N). Inductively, we obtain P(n)=f(n)=an for all nonnegative integer n. This completes the proof.