Maths Olympiad Prep

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Number theory Difficulty 8.5 Shortlist Prove it Taiwan

Let aa be a positive integer. We say that a positive integer bb is aa-good if (anb)1\binom{an}{b} - 1 is divisible by an+1an+1 for all positive integers nn with anban \ge b. Suppose bb is a positive integer such that bb is aa-good, but b+2b+2 is not aa-good. Prove that b+1b+1 is prime.

Solutions — 2

Solution 1

We first show that bb is aa-good iff bb is even and pap \mid a for all primes pbp \le b. Suppose there is a prime pbp \le b with pap \nmid a, take t=vp(b!)t = v_p(b!). Then there exist positive integers cc such that ac1(modpt+1)ac \equiv 1 \pmod{p^{t+1}}. Take large enough cc (so that anban \ge b) and let n=(p1)cn = (p-1)c, then anp1(modpt+1)an \equiv p-1 \pmod{p^{t+1}}. Let X=an(an1)(an2)(anb+1)X = an(an-1)(an-2)\cdots(an-b+1). Since pbp \le b, (an(p1))(an - (p-1)) divides XX, so vp(X)t+1v_p(X) \ge t+1, hence vp((anb))=vp(X)vp(b!)1v_p\left(\binom{an}{b}\right) = v_p(X) - v_p(b!) \ge 1. Since pan+1p \mid an+1, an+1an+1 does not divide (anb)1\binom{an}{b}-1, thus bb is not aa-good.
On the other hand, if pap \mid a for all prime pbp \le b, then b!b! is coprime to an+1an+1. an+1an+1 divides (anb)1=Xb!1\binom{an}{b}-1 = \frac{X}{b!}-1 iff Xb!(modan+1)X \equiv b! \pmod{an+1}. Easy to check that X(1)bb!(modan+1)X \equiv (-1)^b b! \pmod{an+1}. Thus we know that bb is aa-good iff bb is even.
This completes the claim.

Back to the problem, suppose bb is aa-good, then bb is even and pap \mid a for all primes pbp \le b. Since b+2b+2 is not aa-good, we must have b+1b+1 is prime.

Solution 2

First, we show the only if part of the claim in Solution 1. Suppose that we have a prime pbp \le b with pap \nmid a. Suppose the ptp^t digit of the expansion of bb in base pp is nonzero. Since pap \nmid a, can find nn such that the p0p^0 digit of anan is p1p-1 and the ptp^t digit of anan is 0. Thus, pan+1p \mid an+1 and p(anb)p \mid \binom{an}{b} by Lucas' theorem. Thus, bb is not aa-good.
Now we show that if bb is aa-good but b+2b+2 is not, then there must be a prime dividing an+1an+1 for some nn, which also divides (b+1)(b+2)(b+1)(b+2). Indeed, the ratio between (anb+2)\binom{an}{b+2} and (anb)\binom{an}{b} is (b+1)(b+2)(anb)(anb1)\frac{(b+1)(b+2)}{(an-b)(an-b-1)}. By aa-good property, choose nn so that (anb+2)≢1(modan+1)\binom{an}{b+2} \not\equiv 1 \pmod{an+1} and (anb)1(modan+1)\binom{an}{b} \equiv 1 \pmod{an+1}, which means that the given ratio must not be 1(modan+1)1 \pmod{an+1}. So (b+1)(b+2)(b+1)(b+2) cannot be coprime to an+1an+1. Since pap \nmid a for all primes pbp \le b, these condition force that either (b+1)(b+1) or (b+2)(b+2) to be a prime.
By choosing a prime an+1an+1 (by Dirichlet's theorem), easy to check that bb must be even. So b+2b+2 cannot be prime.

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