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Number theory Difficulty 5.8 AIME, harder Prove it Mongolia

Show that, for arbitrary positive integer kk there exist positive integer nn such that 2n2+1n3\frac{2^{n^2} + 1}{n^3} is integer and nn has exactly kk prime divisors.
(proposed by G. Batzaya)

Solution

To prove this problem we need following lemma.

Lemma. Let 2<p2 < p-prime number.
(i) If αN\alpha \in \mathbb{N} then pαa+1p^{\alpha}|a+1 if and only if pα+1a+1p^{\alpha+1}|a+1. From here, we get p2ap+1a+1p^2 \nmid \frac{a^p+1}{a+1}.
(ii) If a4a \ge 4 integer then there exist qq prime number such that qap+1a+1q|\frac{a^p+1}{a+1} and qa+1q \nmid a+1.
Proof of (i). pαa+1a1(pα)p^{\alpha}|a+1 \Leftrightarrow a \equiv -1(p^{\alpha}). We have a1(p)a \equiv -1(p), hence ap1+ap2++1p=0(p)a^{p-1} + a^{p-2} + \dots + 1 \equiv p = 0(p).
Also ap+1(a+1)(ap1ap2++1)a^p + 1 \equiv (a+1)(a^{p-1} - a^{p-2} + \dots + 1), so pα+1ap+1p^{\alpha+1}|a^p+1. Let ap1(mod pα+1)a^p \equiv -1(\text{mod } p^{\alpha+1}). By Fermat's theorem app1(p)a^p \equiv p \equiv 1(p). Thus a=pk1a = pk - 1.
(pk1)p1(pk1)p2++1(pk(p1)+1)(pk(p2)1)++1pkp(p1)2+pp(mod p2). (pk-1)^{p-1}-(pk-1)^{p-2}+\dots+1 \equiv (-pk(p-1)+1)-(pk(p-2)-1)+\dots+1 \equiv \\ \equiv -pk \frac{p(p-1)}{2} + p \equiv p(\text{mod } p^2).
In other words that ordp(ap+1a+1)=1\text{ord}_p\left(\frac{a^p+1}{a+1}\right) = 1. Thus pαa+1p\alpha|a+1 but p2ap+1a+1p^2 \nmid \frac{a^p+1}{a+1}.
Proof of (ii). If for every qN:qap+1a+1q \in \mathbb{N}: q|\frac{a^p+1}{a+1} then qa+1a1(q)q|a+1 \Leftrightarrow a \equiv -1(q) and ap1ap2++1p0(q)a^{p-1} - a^{p-2} + \dots + 1 \equiv p \equiv 0(q). From here we have q=pq = p. Hence pα=ap+1a+1p^{\alpha} = \frac{a^p+1}{a+1}. By using (i) we get
p=ap+1a+1=ap1ap2++1>ap1ap2=ap2(a1)34p2. p = \frac{a^p + 1}{a + 1} = a^{p-1} - a^{p-2} + \dots + 1 > a^{p-1} - a^{p-2} = \\ a^{p-2}(a - 1) \geq 3 \cdot 4^{p-2}.
Last inequality is impossible. This leads contradiction.

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