Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / Berkeley Math Circle /83 of 98

Berkeley Math Circle

Algebra Difficulty 5.5 AIME, harder Prove it United States

Problem:
A polynomial f(x)=∑i=0naixif(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{n} a_{i} x^{i} of degree nn or less is called happy if
(i) Each coefficient aia_{i} satisfies 0≤ai<10 \leq a_{i}<1;
(ii) f(x)f(x) is an integer for all integers xx.
Find the number of happy polynomials of degree nn or less.

Solution

Solution:
The answer is the "superfactorial"
1!⋅2!⋯n!=1n2n−1⋯n1 1! \cdot 2! \cdots n! = 1^{n} 2^{n-1} \cdots n^{1}
For n=1n=1, the result is clear. We will prove as an induction step that there are n!n! times as many happy polynomials of degree at most nn as of degree at most n−1n-1.

Let f(x)f(x) be a happy polynomial of degree at most nn. We claim that the leading coefficient of ff is c/n!c / n! for some integer cc. One way to see this is using "Lagrange interpolation": let
f0(x)=∑0≤k≤n(f(k)∏0≤j≤nj≠kx−jk−j) f_{0}(x)=\sum_{0 \leq k \leq n}\left(f(k) \prod_{\substack{0 \leq j \leq n \\ j \neq k}} \frac{x-j}{k-j}\right)
On the one hand, f0(x)f_{0}(x) is clearly a polynomial of degree at most nn with rational coefficients. On the other hand, for each x=0,…,nx=0, \ldots, n, we have f0(x)=f(x)f_{0}(x)=f(x) since all terms for k≠xk \neq x are zero and the remaining term is f(x)⋅1f(x) \cdot 1. Therefore f0=ff_{0}=f since two distinct polynomials of degree nn can have at most nn common values. The leading coefficient of f=f0f=f_{0} is a sum of terms of the form
1(−k)(−k+1)⋯(−2)(−1)⋅1⋅2⋯(n−k)⋅f(k)=±1k!(n−k)!f(k)=±(nk)n!f(k) \frac{1}{(-k)(-k+1) \cdots(-2)(-1) \cdot 1 \cdot 2 \cdots(n-k)} \cdot f(k)=\frac{ \pm 1}{k !(n-k) !} f(k)=\frac{ \pm\left(\begin{array}{l} n \\ k \end{array}\right)}{n !} f(k)
so it has the form c/n!c / n! for c∈Zc \in \mathbb{Z}.

By the given inequalities, we know that 0≤c<n!0 \leq c < n!. Given f(x)f(x), let
g(x)=f(x)−c⋅x(x−1)⋯(x−n+1)n!, g(x)=f(x)-c \cdot \frac{x(x-1) \cdots(x-n+1)}{n!},
a polynomial of degree at most n−1n-1. For integers x≥nx \geq n, the fraction in the definition of g(x)g(x) is the integer (xn)\left(\begin{array}{l}x \\ n\end{array}\right), from which it is easy to see that g(x)g(x) is an integer for all integers xx. Let h(x)h(x) be the polynomial obtained by reducing each coefficient of gg mod 1 so as to lie in the interval [0,1)[0,1). Then f(x)↦h(x)f(x) \mapsto h(x) defines a bijection between
- happy polynomials of degree ≤n\leq n with nnth-degree coefficient c/n!c / n!, and
- happy polynomials of degree ≤n−1\leq n-1.

Since there are n!n! possible values of cc, it follows that there are n!n! times as many happy polynomials of degree ≤n\leq n as of degree ≤n−1\leq n-1.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,604 problems in a working order, from Junior Challenge level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.