Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2022

Combinatorics Difficulty 5.8 AIME, harder Prove it United States

Problem:

There is a unit circle that starts out painted white. Every second, you choose uniformly at random an arc of arclength 11 of the circle and paint it a new color. You use a new color each time, and new paint covers up old paint. Let cnc_{n} be the expected number of colors visible after nn seconds. Compute limncn\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} c_{n}.

Solutions — 4

Solution 1

Solution:

A more rigorous way to see this is the two radii created on the most recent turn have a probability 11 of being exposed; the two radii created last turn each have a probability 1p1-p of being exposed; the two radii created two turns ago each have a probability (1p)2(1-p)^{2} of being exposed, and so on. Thus, on turn nn, the expected number of exposed radii is
2(1+(1p)+(1p)2++(1p)n1) 2\left(1+(1-p)+(1-p)^{2}+\cdots+(1-p)^{n-1}\right)
This geometric series converges to 2p\frac{2}{p} as nn grows.

Solution 2

Solution:

Notice that colors always appear in contiguous arcs on the circle (i.e. there's never a color that appears in two disconnected arcs). So the number of distinct visible colors is equal to the number of radii that serve as boundaries between colors. Each time we place a new color, we create 22 more of these radii. However, if the expected number of colors after turn nn is constant, we must expect to remove 22 of these radii each turn. This is only possible when there are 4π4 \pi total radii, since we expect to remove 12π\frac{1}{2 \pi} of them each time.

Solution 3

Solution:

Consider the probability that the kk-th last added arc is visible. Suppose there are jj arcs after the kk-th last arc that partially covers this arc. Then the probability that the kk-th last arc is still visible is j+12j\frac{j+1}{2^{j}}, since this is equivalent to randomly choosing jj positions within the kk-th last arc to place an arc in, then randomly choosing a direction, and there are 2j2^{j} ways to choose directions and j+1j+1 of them are good. The probability that any arc partially covers the kk-th last arc is 22π\frac{2}{2 \pi}. Putting everything together, the probability that the kk-th last arc is visible is
j=0k1j+12j(k1j)(22π)j(122π)k1j \sum_{j=0}^{k-1} \frac{j+1}{2^{j}} \cdot\binom{k-1}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j}
so the answer is
1+k=2nj=0k1j+12j(k1j)(22π)j(122π)k1j 1+\sum_{k=2}^{n} \sum_{j=0}^{k-1} \frac{j+1}{2^{j}} \cdot\binom{k-1}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j}
(as the last arc is definitely visible).
We can write this as
1+k=2nj=0k1(j+1)(k1j)(12π)j(122π)k1j 1+\sum_{k=2}^{n} \sum_{j=0}^{k-1}(j+1) \cdot\binom{k-1}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j}
Now,
j=0k11(k1j)(12π)j(122π)k1j=(12π+122π)k1 \sum_{j=0}^{k-1} 1 \cdot\binom{k-1}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j}=\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}+1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1}
by binomial theorem. We can write j(k1j)=(k1)(k2j1)j \cdot\binom{k-1}{j}=(k-1)\binom{k-2}{j-1}, so
j=0k1j(k1j)(12π)j(122π)k1j=(k1)j=1k1(k2j1)(12π)j(122π)k1j=(k1)j=0k2(k2j)(12π)j+1(122π)k2j=k12π(12π+122π)k2 \begin{aligned} \sum_{j=0}^{k-1} j \cdot\binom{k-1}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j} & =(k-1) \sum_{j=1}^{k-1}\binom{k-2}{j-1} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{j} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-1-j} \\ & =(k-1) \sum_{j=0}^{k-2}\binom{k-2}{j} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{j+1} \cdot\left(1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-2-j} \\ & =\frac{k-1}{2 \pi} \cdot\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}+1-\frac{2}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-2} \end{aligned}
Therefore the answer is
1+k=2n(112π+k12π)(112π)k2 1+\sum_{k=2}^{n}\left(1-\frac{1}{2 \pi}+\frac{k-1}{2 \pi}\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)^{k-2}
which is an arithmetic sequence times a geometric sequence. Standard techniques simplify this to 4π4 \pi.

Solution 4

Solution:

We solve for the lifespan of an arc. Let f(x)f(x) represent the expected number of turns an arc of length 2πx2 \pi x will remain visible. Our final answer will be to calculate f(12π)f\left(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right). Then we get the recurrence
f(x)=1+(2π12πx)f(x)+20xf(x)dx f(x)=1+\left(\frac{2 \pi-1}{2 \pi}-x\right) f(x)+2 \int_{0}^{x} f(x) d x
The 11 term comes from counting the fact that the arc is visible during the current turn. The (2π12πx)f(x)\left(\frac{2 \pi-1}{2 \pi}-x\right) f(x) term comes from the fact that there is a 2π12πx\frac{2 \pi-1}{2 \pi}-x chance that the next arc will not intersect the current arc, in which case the current arc would get an extra f(x)f(x) turns to live. The integral comes from the fact that we want to take the average of f(y)f(y) for yr[0,x]y \sim_{r}[0, x], which corresponds to the next arc covering up 2π(xy)2 \pi(x-y) of the current one.
If we differentiate both sides, we end up with a differential equation. Solve it via separation. We end up with f(x)=4π2x+2πf(x)=4 \pi^{2} x+2 \pi. Plugging in x=12πx=\frac{1}{2 \pi} gets us 4π4 \pi.
In general, the answer is f(x)=xk2+1kf(x)=\frac{x}{k^{2}}+\frac{1}{k}, where we are placing arcs of length 2πk2 \pi k.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.