If we plug y→x−1 into the given inequality we get:
f(x)−f(x−1)≥1⋅f(1)≥0,
i.e.
f(x)≥f(x−1),for every x∈R.(1)
If we plug y→0 into the given inequality we get:
f(x)−f(0)≥xf(x),(2)
and plugging x→0, y→x gives us:
f(0)−f(x)≥−xf(−x).(3)
Now, summing (2) and (3) gives us:
0≥xf(x)−xf(−x),
i.e. if we take x>0
f(−x)≥f(x),for every x∈R+.(4)
If we plug x→1, y→0 into the given inequality we get:
f(1)−f(0)≥f(1),
i.e.
f(0)≤0.(5)
Now we conclude that:
0≥(5)f(0)≥(1)f(−1)≥(4)f(1)≥0,
and hence f(−1)=f(0)=f(1)=0.
Repeated use of inequality (1) gives us:
f(x)≥f(x−1)≥f(x−2)≥…,
so it follows that:
f(x)≥f(x−k),for every x∈R, for every k∈N.(6)
Plugging x→x−1, y→−1 into the given inequality gives us:
f(x−1)−f(−1)≥xf(x),
i.e.
f(x−1)≥xf(x),for every x∈R.(7)
From (1) and (7) we conclude that:
f(x)≥xf(x),
i.e.
f(x)(x−1)≤0.
It follows from the previous inequality that
f(x)≤0,for every x>1andf(x)≥0,for every x<1.(8)
Now we assume that x>1. Then there exists y<1 such that k=x−y∈N.
Therefore:
0≥f(x)≥f(x−k)=f(y)≥0
so we conclude that f(x)=0 for every x>1. Similarly, if x<1 then there exists y>1 such that k=y−x∈N so:
0≥f(y)≥f(y−k)=f(x)≥0
and again f(x)=0. Hence we conclude that the only possible solution is the function f(x)=0. It is easy to check that the function f(x)=0 really is a solution, i.e. that it satisfies the given conditions.