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Croatian Mathematical Competitions

Algebra Difficulty 6.2 National Olympiad Prove it Croatia

Find all functions f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} such that f(1)≥0f(1) \ge 0 and
f(x)−f(y)≥(x−y)f(x−y), f(x) - f(y) \ge (x - y)f(x - y),
for all real numbers xx and yy.

Solution

If we plug y→x−1y \to x - 1 into the given inequality we get:
f(x)−f(x−1)≥1⋅f(1)≥0, f(x) - f(x-1) \ge 1 \cdot f(1) \ge 0,
i.e.
f(x)≥f(x−1),for every x∈R.(1) f(x) \ge f(x-1), \quad \text{for every } x \in \mathbb{R}. \qquad (1)

If we plug y→0y \to 0 into the given inequality we get:
f(x)−f(0)≥xf(x),(2) f(x) - f(0) \ge x f(x), \qquad (2)

and plugging x→0x \to 0, y→xy \to x gives us:
f(0)−f(x)≥−xf(−x).(3) f(0) - f(x) \ge -x f(-x). \qquad (3)

Now, summing (2) and (3) gives us:
0≥xf(x)−xf(−x), 0 \ge x f(x) - x f(-x),
i.e. if we take x>0x > 0
f(−x)≥f(x),for every x∈R+.(4) f(-x) \ge f(x), \quad \text{for every } x \in \mathbb{R}^{+}. \qquad (4)

If we plug x→1x \to 1, y→0y \to 0 into the given inequality we get:
f(1)−f(0)≥f(1), f(1) - f(0) \ge f(1),
i.e.
f(0)≤0.(5) f(0) \le 0. \tag{5}
Now we conclude that:
0≥(5)f(0)≥(1)f(−1)≥(4)f(1)≥0, 0 \stackrel{(5)}{\ge} f(0) \stackrel{(1)}{\ge} f(-1) \stackrel{(4)}{\ge} f(1) \ge 0,
and hence f(−1)=f(0)=f(1)=0f(-1) = f(0) = f(1) = 0.

Repeated use of inequality (1) gives us:
f(x)≥f(x−1)≥f(x−2)≥…, f(x) \ge f(x-1) \ge f(x-2) \ge \dots,
so it follows that:
f(x)≥f(x−k),for every x∈R, for every k∈N.(6) f(x) \ge f(x-k), \quad \text{for every } x \in \mathbb{R}, \text{ for every } k \in \mathbb{N}. \tag{6}

Plugging x→x−1x \to x-1, y→−1y \to -1 into the given inequality gives us:
f(x−1)−f(−1)≥xf(x), f(x-1) - f(-1) \ge x f(x),
i.e.
f(x−1)≥xf(x),for every x∈R.(7) f(x-1) \ge x f(x), \quad \text{for every } x \in \mathbb{R}. \tag{7}

From (1) and (7) we conclude that:
f(x)≥xf(x), f(x) \ge x f(x),
i.e.
f(x)(x−1)≤0. f(x)(x-1) \le 0.

It follows from the previous inequality that
f(x)≤0,for every x>1andf(x)≥0,for every x<1.(8) f(x) \le 0, \quad \text{for every } x > 1 \quad \text{and} \quad f(x) \ge 0, \quad \text{for every } x < 1. \tag{8}
Now we assume that x>1x > 1. Then there exists y<1y < 1 such that k=x−y∈Nk = x - y \in \mathbb{N}.
Therefore:
0≥f(x)≥f(x−k)=f(y)≥0 0 \ge f(x) \ge f(x-k) = f(y) \ge 0
so we conclude that f(x)=0f(x) = 0 for every x>1x > 1. Similarly, if x<1x < 1 then there exists y>1y > 1 such that k=y−x∈Nk = y - x \in \mathbb{N} so:
0≥f(y)≥f(y−k)=f(x)≥0 0 \ge f(y) \ge f(y-k) = f(x) \ge 0
and again f(x)=0f(x) = 0. Hence we conclude that the only possible solution is the function f(x)=0f(x) = 0. It is easy to check that the function f(x)=0f(x) = 0 really is a solution, i.e. that it satisfies the given conditions.

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