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SAUDI ARABIAN IMO Booklet, 2023

Number theory Difficulty 8.5 Shortlist Prove it Saudi Arabia

Denote by N\mathbb{N} the set of positive integers. Find all functions f:N→Nf: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} such that x−yx - y divides xf(x)−yf(y)x^{f(x)} - y^{f(y)} for every two coprime integers xx and yy.

Solution

(Base on the solution of Hadi Alaithan, IMO 2023's team member)
Note that for x,yx, y are coprime positive integers, we have
x−y∣xf(x)−yf(y)⇔x−y∣x∣f(x)−f(y)∣−1. x - y \mid x^{f(x)} - y^{f(y)} \Leftrightarrow x - y \mid x^{|f(x) - f(y)|} - 1.
Now we state the following lemma:
Lemma (Zsigmondy's Theorem): for a>b≥1a > b \ge 1 be coprime integers and n≥2n \ge 2, there exists a prime divisor of an−bna^n - b^n that does not divide ak−bka^k - b^k for all 1≤k<n1 \le k < n, except when n=2n = 2 and a+ba + b is a power of 22 or (a,b,n)=(2,1,6)(a, b, n) = (2, 1, 6).

Back to the original problem, for any coprime integers xx and yy, we show that ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤1|f(x) - f(y)| \le 1. Suppose that the difference is larger than 11, then there exists a prime pp divides f(x)−f(y)f(x) - f(y). Because xx and yy are relatively prime, one of these numbers is not a multiple of pp. Assume that gcd⁡(x,p)=1\gcd(x, p) = 1. By choosing a suitable number zz, we will show that this is a contradiction.

Denote k=vp(f(x)−f(y))k = v_p(f(x) - f(y)). By the lemma, for some N1>kN_1 > k, there exists a prime q1q_1 such that
ord⁡q1(x)=pN1,q1>xy. \operatorname{ord}_{q_1}(x) = p^{N_1}, \quad q_1 > x y.
Similarly, for some N2>N1>kN_2 > N_1 > k such that there exists a prime q2>q1q_2 > q_1 and
ord⁡q2(y)=pN2 \operatorname{ord}_{q_2}(y) = p^{N_2}
It is obvious that q1,q2,xq_1, q_2, x and yy are pairwise relatively prime. By Chinese remainder theorem, there exists a positive integer zz such that
{z≡1(modx),z≡x(modq1),z≡1(mody),z≡y(modq2). \begin{cases} z \equiv 1 \pmod{x}, & z \equiv x \pmod{q_1}, \\ z \equiv 1 \pmod{y}, & z \equiv y \pmod{q_2}. \end{cases}
These conditions give
{q1∣(z−x)∣x∣f(z)−f(x)∣−1q2∣(z−y)∣y∣f(z)−f(y)∣−1. \begin{cases} q_1 \mid (z-x) \mid x^{|f(z) - f(x)|} - 1 \\ q_2 \mid (z-y) \mid y^{|f(z) - f(y)|} - 1. \end{cases}
Hence pN1∣f(x)−f(z)p^{N_1} \mid f(x) - f(z) and pN2∣f(x)−f(y)p^{N_2} \mid f(x) - f(y). These give pN1∣f(x)−f(y)p^{N_1} \mid f(x) - f(y). This is a contradiction.

Now, we show that f(x)=f(y)f(x) = f(y) for all coprime x,y>1x, y > 1. Choose z>2x,2yz > 2x, 2y such that gcd⁡(z,xy)=1\gcd(z, x y) = 1. Then we have
z−x>x−1,z−y>y−1. z - x > x - 1, \quad z - y > y - 1.
Then both f(z)−f(x)=0f(z) - f(x) = 0 and f(z)−f(y)=0f(z) - f(y) = 0 due to the divisibility. We obtain that f(x)=f(y)f(x) = f(y) if xx and yy are relatively prime.

In conclusion, ff is constant on {2,3,… }\{2, 3, \dots\} and f(1)∈Nf(1) \in \mathbb{N}.

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