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BMO Shortlist, 2019

Algebra Difficulty 8.3 Shortlist Prove it Balkan Mathematical Olympiad

Let a0a_0 be an arbitrary positive integer. Let {an}\{a_n\} be an infinite sequence of positive integers such that for every positive integer nn the term ana_n is the smallest positive integer such that a0+a1+⋯+ana_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n is divisible by nn. Prove that there is a positive integer NN such that an+1=ana_{n+1} = a_n for all n≥Nn \ge N.

Let a0a_0 be an arbitrary positive integer. Consider the infinite sequence (an)n≥1(a_n)_{n \ge 1}, defined inductively as follows: given a0,a1,…,an−1a_0, a_1, \dots, a_{n-1} define the term ana_n as the smallest positive integer such that a0+a1+⋯+ana_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n is divisible by nn. Prove that there exists a positive integer MM such that an+1=ana_{n+1} = a_n for all n≥Mn \ge M.

Solution

Define bn=a0+a1+⋯+annb_n = \frac{a_0+a_1+\dots+a_n}{n} for every positive integer nn. According to condition, bnb_n is a positive integer for every positive integer nn.
Since an+1a_{n+1} is the smallest positive integer such that a0+a1+⋯+ann+1\frac{a_0+a_1+\dots+a_n}{n+1} is a positive integer and
a0+a1+⋯+an+bnn+1=a0+a1+⋯+an+a0+a1+⋯+annn+1=a0+a1+⋯+ann=bn, \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + b_n}{n+1} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + \frac{a_0+a_1+\dots+a_n}{n}}{n+1} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n}{n} = b_n,
which is a positive integer, we get an+1≤bna_{n+1} \le b_n for every positive integer nn.
Now from last result we have
bn+1=a0+a1+⋯+an+an+1n+1≤a0+a1+⋯+an+bnn+1=bn. b_{n+1} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + a_{n+1}}{n+1} \le \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + b_n}{n+1} = b_n.
Hence the infinite sequence of positive integers b1,b2,…b_1, b_2, \dots is non-increasing. So there exists a positive integer TT such that for all n≥Tn \ge T we have
bn+1=bn⇒a0+a1+⋯+an+an+1n+1=a0+a1+⋯+ann⇒n(a0+a1+⋯+an+an+1)=(n+1)(a0+a1+⋯+an)⇒nan+1=a0+a1+⋯+an⇒an+1=a0+a1+⋯+ann=bn. \begin{align*} b_{n+1} &= b_n \Rightarrow \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + a_{n+1}}{n+1} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n}{n} &\Rightarrow \\ n(a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n + a_{n+1}) &= (n+1)(a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n) &\Rightarrow \\ na_{n+1} &= a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n &\Rightarrow a_{n+1} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 + \dots + a_n}{n} = b_n. \end{align*}
Similarly we get an+2=bn+1a_{n+2} = b_{n+1}, which follows that an+2=bn+1=bn=an+1a_{n+2} = b_{n+1} = b_n = a_{n+1}. Hence, taking M=T+1M = T+1, we can state that an+1=ana_{n+1} = a_n for every n≥Mn \ge M.
□\Box

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