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IMO Hk TST

Algebra Difficulty 7.6 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Hong Kong

The sequence {an}\{a_n\} is defined by a1=0a_1 = 0 and (n+1)3an+1=2n2(2n+1)an+2(3n+1)(n+1)^3 a_{n+1} = 2n^2(2n+1)a_n + 2(3n+1) for all integers n≥1n \ge 1. Show that infinitely many members of the sequence are positive integers.

Solution

Let bn=n2an+2b_n = n^2a_n + 2 for all n≥1n \ge 1. The recurrence relation becomes
(n+1)(bn+1−2)=2(2n+1)(bn−2)+2(3n+1). (n + 1)(b_{n+1} - 2) = 2(2n + 1)(b_n - 2) + 2(3n + 1).
This is the same as
bn+1=2(2n+1)n+1bn. b_{n+1} = \frac{2(2n + 1)}{n + 1}b_n.
It follows that
bn=2(2n−1)nbn−1=22(2n−1)(2n−3)n(n−1)bn−2=⋯=2n−1(2n−1)!!n!b1, b_n = \frac{2(2n-1)}{n} b_{n-1} = \frac{2^2(2n-1)(2n-3)}{n(n-1)} b_{n-2} = \dots = \frac{2^{n-1}(2n-1)!!}{n!} b_1,
where (2n−1)!!=(2n−1)(2n−3)⋯(1)(2n-1)!! = (2n-1)(2n-3)\cdots(1). Since b1=a1+2=2b_1 = a_1 + 2 = 2, we have
bn=2n(2n−1)!!n!=(2n)!!(2n−1)!!(n!)2=(2n)!(n!)2=(2nn). b_n = \frac{2^n(2n-1)!!}{n!} = \frac{(2n)!!(2n-1)!!}{(n!)^2} = \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2} = \binom{2n}{n}.
Therefore, we obtain
an=bn−2n2=1n2[(2nn)−2]. a_n = \frac{b_n - 2}{n^2} = \frac{1}{n^2} \left[ \binom{2n}{n} - 2 \right].
By Vandermonde's identity, we can rewrite this as
an=1n2(∑k=0n(nk)2−2)=1n2(∑k=1n−1(nk)2). a_n = \frac{1}{n^2} \left( \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k}^2 - 2 \right) = \frac{1}{n^2} \left( \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \binom{n}{k}^2 \right).

When n=pn = p is a prime, we have p∣(pk)p \mid \binom{p}{k} for 1≤k≤n−11 \le k \le n-1, and so p2∣(pk)2p^2 \mid \binom{p}{k}^2. This implies ap∈Za_p \in \mathbb{Z}. Clearly, ap>0a_p > 0. Since there are infinitely many prime numbers, there are infinitely many terms which are positive integers.

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